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trasher [3.6K]
3 years ago
12

A lot of designer clothing companies will send free clothes to celebrities with hopes that the celebrities will wear their cloth

ing in public and attract more customers to the brand. what mode of end?
Business
1 answer:
Kazeer [188]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Celebrity endorsement.

Explanation:

The complete question is...

A lot of designer clothing companies will send free clothes to celebrities with hopes that the celebrities will wear their clothing in public and attract more customers to the brand. what mode of end? What mode of endorsement are these clothing companies trying to achieve?

Celebrity endorsement uses a celebrity's fame or social status to promote a product, brand or service. It is mostly associated with the fashion and beauty brands, and the goal is that the positive image of the celebrity be reflected onto the product or the brand. Celebrity endorsement has been used by some brands to promote their businesses into a multi-billion dollar company, and is also very lucrative for the celebrity, whose contract deals can run into hundreds of millions of dollars.

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On December 1, 20X1, Money Co. gave Home Co. a $200,000, 11% loan. Money paid proceeds of $194,000 after the deduction of a $6,0
zysi [14]

Answer: <em>(C.) $2,005</em>

Explanation:

Given :

Money Co. made a cash outflow of $194,000 for the $200,000 loan Money gave to Home Co.  

The book value of the loan is $194,000.

The stated rate is 11%.

Hence they will receive an effective interest rate of 12.4% on cash outflow.  

∴

Income from the loan = Book value × Effective interest rate × No. of months of the year

= $194,000 × 0.124 × \frac{1}{2}

= $2,004.67

3 0
3 years ago
You sold short JCP stock at $80 per share. Your losses could be minimized by placing a __________. a. limit-sell order b. limit-
san4es73 [151]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": stop-buy order.

Explanation:

A stop-buy order is an order to purchase a stock at a particular price above its current market price. By placing a stop-buy order, the investor sets the price at which he will buy the stock in advance, thus eliminating the risk of missing the price point, the opportunity to buy a stock with good returns, or covering a short position at a reasonable loss instead of allowing the negative trade balance to rise.

So, <em>setting a stop-buy order will help the trader exit the transaction at a specific price to cover losses of a short position at a reasonable risk rate.</em>

3 0
3 years ago
The issuance of notes payable for borrowing is classified in the statement of cash flows as a(n): Multiple Choice Operating acti
Harman [31]

The transaction of the issuance of notes payable for borrowing will be classified in cash flows statement as a Financing activities.

Under the statement of Cash-flow, the financing activities section records all transactions that involves long-term liabilities, owner's equity etc.

  • Hence, the transaction of the issuance of notes payable for borrowing will be classified in cash flows statement as a Financing activities.

Therefore, the Option C is correct.

Read more about Cash-flow

<em>brainly.com/question/735261</em>

8 0
2 years ago
A company began the year with assets of $117,000, liabilities of $28,500, and stockholders' equity of $88,500. During the year a
algol [13]

Answer:

Change in liabilities = $33,300

Explanation

<em>According to the accounting equation, assets is equal to liabilities + equity. And this equation can be re-written as:</em>

Liabilities = assets - equity

Liabilities at the end of the period = assets at the end - equity at the end

Assets at the end= 117,000 + 56,700= 173,700

Equity at the end = 88,500 + 23,400 = 111,900

Liabilities at the end = 173,700 - 111,900=61800

Change in liabilities = Liabilities at the end - Liabilities at the beginning

Change in liabilities = 61,800 - 28,500= $33,300

8 0
3 years ago
An ordinary annuity selling at $14,130.15 today promises to make equal payments at the end of each year for the next twelve year
lutik1710 [3]

Answer:

PMT = $1875.00

Explanation:

The annuity refers to a series of fixed payments made after an equal interval of time and for a definite time period. The formula for the present value of annuity is,

<u />

<u>For ordinary annuity</u>

PV of annuity = PMT * [(1 - (1+IN)^-n) / IN]

Plugging in the values for the available variables. We calculate the PMT to be,

14130.15 = PMT * [(1 - (1+0.08)^-12) / 0.08]

14130.15 = PMT * 7.536078017

14130.15 / 7.536078017   =   PMT

PMT = $1875.000493 rounded off to $1875.00

5 0
3 years ago
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