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Elena-2011 [213]
3 years ago
15

Butler Corporation is considering the purchase of new equipment costing $78,000. The projected annual after-tax net income from

the equipment is $2,800, after deducting $26,000 for depreciation. The revenue is to be received at the end of each year. The machine has a useful life of 3 years and no salvage value. Butler requires a 11% return on its investments. The present value of an annuity of $1 for different periods follows: Periods 11% 1 0.9009 2 1.7125 3 2.4437 4 3.1024 What is the net present value of the machine
Business
1 answer:
True [87]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

-$7,621

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the net present value of the machine

Using this formula

Net present value of the machine=(Net cash flow *present value of an annuity at 11%)- Amount invested

Let plug in the formula

Net present value of the machine=($2,800+$26000*2.4437)-$78,000

Net present value of the machine=($28,800*2.4437)-78,000

Net present value of the machine=$70,379-$78,000

Net present value of the machine=-$7,621

Therefore the Net present value of the machine is -$7,621

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An electronic firm invested $60,000 in a precision inspection device. It cost $4000 to operate and maintain in the first year an
Anon25 [30]

Answer:

$9,287.63

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Amount invested = $60,000

Operating cost for the first year = $4000

Operating and maintaining cost after 1 year = $3,000

Selling price  = $60,000

Now,

Amount paid extra in the year 1 =  $4,000 - $3,000

= $1,000

EUAC ($)

= $60,000 × A/P(10%, 4) + $3,000 + $1,000 × P/F(10%, 1) × A/P(10%, 4) - [ $60,000 × P/F(10%, 4) × A/P(10%, 4) ]

= [ $60,000 × 0.3155 + 3,000 + 1,000 × 0.9091 × 0.3155 ] - [ 60,000 × 0.6830 × 0.3155  ]

= [ $18,930 + $3,000 + $286.82 ] - [ $12,929.19 ]

= $9,287.63

5 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST ANSWER
Rina8888 [55]
Warehousing & Distribution Center

Distribution management refers to the process of overseeing the movement of goods from supplier or manufacturer to point of sale. It is an overarching term that refers to numerous activities and processes such as packaging, inventory, warehousing, supply chain, and logistics.
4 0
3 years ago
For fixed-rate bonds it's important to realize that the value of the bond has a(n)-Select relationship to the level of interest
pogonyaev

Answer:

Answer is explained in the explanation section below.

Explanation:

It's necessary to remember that the value of fixed-rate bonds is inversely proportional to the level of interest rates. The value of the bond decreases as interest rates rise; moreover, the value of the bond rises as interest rates fall. A Bond with a lower coupon sells for less than its face value. When the going rate of interest is higher than the coupon rate, this condition arises. The value of the asset would increase over time. A higher coupon bond is one that sells for a higher price than its face value. When the going rate of interest is lower than the coupon rate, this condition arises. Its value will gradually decrease until it reaches its maturity value. A par value bond that sells at par, with a coupon rate equal to the current interest rate. The coupon is usually set at the going market rate on the day the bond is sold, so it sells at par at first.

Calculations:

C = Coupon Payments = $60 (Par Value x Coupon Rate)

n = number of years = 10

i = market rate or required yield = 7% = 0.007

K = number of coupon payments in 1 year = 1

P = value at maturity or par value = 1000

Present value of ordinary annuity formula:

Bond Price = C/k * [\frac{1 - \frac{1}{(1 + \frac{i}{k})^{nk}  } }{\frac{i}{k} } ] + \frac{P}{(1 + \frac{i}{k})^{nk}  }

Just plug in the values and you will get:

Bond Price = 60 x 7.02 + 508.35

Bond Price = 421.41 508.35

Bond Price = $929.76

Similarly,

Data:

C = Coupon Payments = $60 (Par Value x Coupon Rate)

n = number of years = 10

i = market rate or required yield = 7% = 0.007

K = number of coupon payments in 1 year = 2

P = value at maturity or par value = 1000

Present value of ordinary annuity formula:  

Bond Price = C/k * [\frac{1 - \frac{1}{(1 + \frac{i}{k})^{nk}  } }{\frac{i}{k} } ] + \frac{P}{(1 + \frac{i}{k})^{nk}  }

Just plug in the values and you will get:  

Bond Price = 30 x 14.21 + 502.57

Bond Price = 426.37 + 502.57

Bond Price = $928.94

8 0
3 years ago
The graph illustrates a change in the market for bicycles. Which statement could explain the graph?
olchik [2.2K]

Based on the graph that shows the change in the market for bicycles, the statement that explains the graph is The demand for bicycles increased due to news about the health benefits of exercise. The market price & quantity increased.

<h3>Which statement explains the supply and demand graph?</h3>

The question is not complete as the graph is not given. However, an answer can be formulated based on the laws of demand and supply.

The most likely option to be true is that the demand for bicycles increased due to news about its health benefits and then this led to the market price and quantity increasing.

This is because the increased demand for the bicycles would have drove the prices up. This would then have inspired suppliers to produce more bicycles thereby increasing bicycle quantity as well.

Find out more on demand increasing at brainly.com/question/4371942

#SPJ1

7 0
1 year ago
Farm workers in Oaks Farmville face a 1/85 probability of death at work and each of them receives a yearly wage of $159,106. Far
Lostsunrise [7]

Answer:

$154,182.02

Explanation:

Probability of Farm workers in ( O.F ) facing death at work = 1/85 = 0.012

Probability of Farm workers in ( V.F ) facing death at work = 1/127 = 0.008

Value of a statistical life = $1,262,558

<u>Determine how much  the workers in less risky job should get paid </u>

The less risky job is working in Valley farm(V.F ) with a death probability of = 1/127 = 0.008

The more risky job is working in valley farm ( probability = 1/85 = 0.012 )

Yearly wage of risky job = $159106

payment for less risky job can be calculated using the relation below

statistical life = ( cost incurred to reduce risk) / ( percentage of risk to death reduced )  ---------------- ( 1 )

cost incurred to reduce risk =  yearly wage to high risk workers - yearly wage to low risk workers

 =  159106 - X

percentage of risk to death reduced = (probability of death to high risk workers) - ( probability of death to low risk worker )

= 1/85 - 1/127 = 0.0039

back to relation 1

1262558 = ( 159106 - X ) / ( 0.0039)

159106 - X = 1262558 ( 0.0039 )

hence X ( amount to be paid to workers in the less risky job )

X = 159106 - 4923.9762 = $154,182.02

7 0
3 years ago
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