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3 years ago

2. Why are accounts receivable considered assets even if the money has not yet been paid to the business?

Business

1 answer:

Strike441 [17]3 years ago

5 0

The payee has a legal obligation to submit the funds.

Explanation:

Once a transaction is agreed upon it becomes a legal obligation of the payee to pay the business owner.

<u>Accounts receivable are thus counted in the balance sheets as liquid funds or current funds as they are converted into cash in less than an year is most cases. </u>

In such a case that doesn't happen, they are counted as long term assets of a company. Any potential income guaranteed by legality is counted in the balance sheet as assets.

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This morning, you borrowed $150,000 to buy a house. The mortgage rate is 7.35 percent. The loan is to be repaid in equal monthly

NeTakaya

Answer:

$277.61 is applies to the principal balance of the second payment.

Explanation:

Loan is provided to purchase any asset and pay it back on easy installment with some interest amount yearly.

Use following formula to calculate monthly installment:

P = (PV x r) / ( 1 - ( 1 + r )^-n )

P = ( $150000 x 7.35%/12 ) / ( 1 - ( 1 + 7.35% / 12 )^-240

P = 1194.669

1st payment

Payment = $1,194.67

Interest = 150,000 x 7.35/12 = $918.75

Principal Payment = $1,194.67 - $918.75 = $275.92

Outstanding balance = $150,000 - $275.92 = 149,724.08

2nd Payment

Payment = $1,194.67

Interest = 149,724.08 x 7.35/12 = $917.06

Principal Payment = $1,194.67 - $917.06 = $277.61

4 0

3 years ago

The probability of low demand is estimated to be 0.20. The after-tax net present value of the benefits from purchasing the two m

kondaur [170]

Answer: a)The decision tree is attached as a document to this question.

b)$140000

Here is the complete question:

. A manager is trying to decide whether to buy one machine or two. If only one is purchased and demand proves to be excessive, the second machine can be purchased later. Some sales will be lost, however, because the lead time for purchasing this type of machine is 6 months. In addition, the cost per machine will be lower if both are purchased at the same time. The probability of low demand is estimated to be 0.20. The after-tax net present value of the benefits from purchasing the two machines together is $90,000 if demand is low and $180,000 if demand is high.

If one machine is purchased and demand is low, the net present value is $120,000. If demand is high, the manager has three options. Doing nothing has a net present value of $120,000; subcontracting, $160,000; and buying the second machines, $140,000.

a. Draw the decision tree for this problem.

b. Use the decision tree to determine how many machines the company should buy initially and give the expected payoff for this alternative.

Explanation:

Concepts and reason

The expected value of perfect information (EVPI)= EPPI - EP

(EPPI) =expected payoff with perfect information

(EP)= maximum expected payoff computed under uncertainty.

Fundamentals

The expected payoff = P₁X₁ + P₂X₂ +....PnXn,

The formula for the expected payoff is, E(X) = ΣxΡ(x)

Suppose you have a set of corresponding probabilities for playing your pure strategies = Pn

where the probabilities must all be greater than or equal to zero and they all sum to one.

b) the values at node 4 = $120000, $140000 and $160000

EV =maximum(node4)

=max($120000, $140000 , $160000)

=$140000

expected payoff at node 4 = $140000

3 0

3 years ago

An investment advisor has a client base composed of high net worth individuals. In her personal portfolio, the advisor has an in

e-lub [12.9K]

Answer: c. recommend Torex, but she must disclose her investment in Torex to the client.

Explanation:

The investment advisor is allowed to recommend Torex to her clients as she believes that it is financially sound and undervalued which means that there is a chance for her clients to earn a good enough return.

She must however disclose to them that she has an investment in the company so that they can decide on their own if this may have biased her decision towards the company as a viable investment option.

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2 years ago

Assume that Jack, Hal, and Sophia enter into a valid contract for the sale of the restaurant and for the covenant not to compete

Andrei [34K]

Answer: C. Reformation

Explanation: A non-compete agreement or clause is a legal binding entered into by two or more parties which restricts the parties from being in competition with the other usually through the sale of similar product. However, in the context above, since the non-compete clause has been breached by Jack, and the judge feels the time constraint in the clause was unreasonably long, The reformation process will be best to remediate the situation, which refers to the change or alteration of the terms of an existing document using the judicial process and requires the conformation of the parties involved.

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3 years ago

. Define a primary and secondary market for securities and discuss how they differ. Discuss how the primary market is dependent

Amanda [17]

Explanation:

Primary market for securities is one that provides access to buy new new issues of stocks and bonds of a company. A good example of primary market is an Initial Public Offering (IPO), organized by a company that wants to sell it's shares for the first time to investors.

While Secondary market, are places to sell securities to a secondary (second) buyer from the current security owner who bought from the primary market.

The primary market is dependent on the secondary market since it is the demand from the secondary market that determines the asset valuation of the primary market.

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3 years ago