Why is referring to the middle ages as the dark ages seen as a Eurocentric point of view?

History

1 answer:

Natasha_Volkova [10]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Referring to the Middle Ages as the Dark Ages is eurocentric because other regions in the world did not experience a period of decline during this time frame, as Europe did. For example, both the Middle East and China flourished during this time.

Therefore, one should always specify that the term Dark Ages only applies to Europe, otherwise, one would be promoting an eurocentric point of view.

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