Answer:
a. Acct. receivable % uncollectible Est. uncollectible
1-30 days old $63,000 3% $1,890
31-90 days old $12,000 14% $1,680
> 90 days old $5,000 37% <u>$1,850</u>
Total <u>$5,420</u>
b. Date General journal Debit Credit
Dec 31 Bad debts expenses $5,150
Allowance for doubtful accounts $5,150
($5,420 - $270)
Answer:
The correct answer is Option A.
Explanation:
A. Losses on the sale of longminusterm assets are subtracted from net income - This is incorrect because on losses on sale of an asset are usually added to the net income to avoid double-counting of income. Under the investing section of the cash flows, the proceed received on disposal is recorded there as inflow, if the losses realized on the disposal are subtracted, there would be a double-counting because the losses had already reduced the net income before.
B. Increases in current liabilities are added to net income - This is an inflow of cash, so it is usually added back.
C. Depreciation expense is added to net income - The explanation under Option A above applies but only that depreciation is a non-cash item, which already reduced the net income and it has to be added back to reinstate the net income.
D. Gains on the sale of longminusterm assets are subtracted from net income - Explanation under Option A applies.
Answer:
Company 1 = $2 per share
Company 2 = $2.50 per share
Explanation:
Given that,
EBIT for both companies = $1,000
Number of shares outstanding for company 1 = 500
Number of shares outstanding for company 2 = 300
Interest paid by company 2 = $250
EPS for company 1:
= (Total income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Shares outstanding
= ($1,000 - $0) ÷ 500
= $2 per share
EPS for company 2:
= (Total income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Shares outstanding
= ($1,000 - $250) ÷ 300
= $750 ÷ 300
= $2.50 per share