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erma4kov [3.2K]
3 years ago
11

Can a scientific ‘law’ change?

Physics
2 answers:
slavikrds [6]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

just because and idea becomes a law it doesn't mean it can't be changed

zavuch27 [327]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Nope

Explanation:

Because take for example Newtons law

You might be interested in
B. La velocidad de los electrones en los conductores metálicos es muy pequeña, del orden de algunos mm por segundo. ¿Cómo podría
Iteru [2.4K]

Answer:

electromagnetic wave. this energy is what lights the bulb.

Explanation:

When you close an electrical circuit, the electrons have a small drag speed, but the fluctuation of the electric field that is created originates by Lenz's law a magnetic field and the appearance of this magnetic field creates a fluctuating elective field, these two fields together forms a wave called an electromagnetic wave.

 This electromagnetic wave has a speed given by the relation

               v = √1 /ε μ

in a vacuum this speed is equal to the speed of light, which is worth 3 10⁸ m/s this very high value so the energy transported by this wave can travel the distance of 10 m in less than 10⁻⁷ s, This energy is what lights the bulb.

5 0
4 years ago
Two wheels roll side-by-side without sliding, at the same speed. The radius of wheel 2 is one-half (1/2) the radius of wheel 1.
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

w'=(1/2)w

Explanation:

In order to calculate the angular velocity of the second wheel, you use the following formula:

\omega=\frac{v}{r}      (1)

v: speed of the wheel 1 = speed of the wheel 2

r: radius of the wheel 1

For the second wheel you have:

r'=2r

You replace this value of r' in the following equation:

\omega'=\frac{v}{r'}=\frac{v}{2r}=\frac{1}{2}\frac{v}{r}=\frac{1}{2}\omega\\\\\omega'=\frac{1}{2}\omega

The angular velocity of the second wheel is one half of the angular velocity of the first wheel

6 0
3 years ago
The intensity of light from a star (its brightness) is the power it outputs divided by the surface area over which it’s spread:
kow [346]

Answer:

\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}=0.36

Explanation:

1. We can find the temperature of each star using the Wien's Law. This law is given by:

\lambda_{max}=\frac{b}{T}=\frac{2.9x10^{-3}[mK]}{T[K]} (1)

So, the temperature of the first and the second star will be:

T_{1}=3866.7 K

T_{2}=6444.4 K

Now the relation between the absolute luminosity and apparent brightness  is given:

L=l\cdot 4\pi r^{2} (2)

Where:

  • L is the absolute luminosity
  • l is the apparent brightness
  • r is the distance from us in light years

Now, we know that two stars have the same apparent brightness, in other words l₁ = l₂

If we use the equation (2) we have:

\frac{L_{1}}{4\pi r_{1}^2}=\frac{L_{2}}{4\pi r_{2}^2}

So the relative distance between both stars will be:

\left(\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}\right)^{2}=\frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}} (3)

The Boltzmann Law says, L=A\sigma T^{4} (4)

  • σ is the Boltzmann constant
  • A is the area
  • T is the temperature
  • L is the absolute luminosity

Let's put (4) in (3) for each star.

\left(\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}\right)^{2}=\frac{A_{1}\sigma T_{1}^{4}}{A_{2}\sigma T_{2}^{4}}

As we know both stars have the same size we can canceled out the areas.

\left(\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}\right)^{2}=\frac{T_{1}^{4}}{T_{2}^{4}}

\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}=\sqrt{\frac{T_{1}^{4}}{T_{2}^{4}}}

\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}=\sqrt{\frac{T_{1}^{4}}{T_{2}^{4}}}

\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}=0.36

I hope it helps!

5 0
3 years ago
Electricity may be categorized as static or current. how are these two types of energy different
arlik [135]
Hello!

Static electricity occurs due to an imbalance in positively and negatively charged atoms. An example of this is when you take your clothes out of the dryer, and feel a slight sting when touching them. Another example of static electricity is lightning.

Current electricity occurs when there is a constant flow of electrons, such as in plug-operated machinery or anything operated using a battery. :)
4 0
4 years ago
A pendulum has 141 J of potential energy at the highest point of its swing. How much kinetic energy will it have at the bottom o
Lubov Fominskaja [6]
Assume that energy losses (due to aerodynamic resistance or bearing friction are negligible).

At the highest point, the pendulum has its maximum potential energy (PE) and zero kinetic energy (KE). The total energy is equal to the PE = 141 J.

At the lowest point, the pendulum has its maximum KE, and zero PE. The total energy is equal to the KE.

Because energy is preserved, therefore
KE at the lowest point  = PE at the highest point  = 141 J.

Answer:  141 J
3 0
3 years ago
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