Answer:
n=1
Step-by-step explanation:
n+7n-5=3
8n=8
divide both side by coefficient of n we get
n=1
are there any answer choices?
Step-by-step explanation:
40%= 0.40 if you think of the decimal being at the end of the number (40.%) than just move the decimal twice makes it 0.40
I belive,
The experimental probability could be more, the same or less than the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 (which is 1/6).
The larger your sample (i. e., as you go beyond 60 tosses), the closer the two different probabilities are likely to be. (Think: Law of Large Numbers).