Answer:
the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
Step-by-step explanation:
Since each bit is independent from the others , then the random variable X= number of 0 s in the code word follows a binomial distribution, where
p(X)= n!/((n-x)!*x!*p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
where
n= number of independent bits=5
x= number of 0 s
p= probability that a bit is 0 = 0.8
then for x=1
p(1) = n*p*(1-p)^(n-1) = 5*0.8*0.2^4 = 0.0064 (0.64%)
therefore the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
Answer:
Absolute value function.
Step-by-step explanation:
- The absolute value of a number helps us to calculate the distance between a number and zero, provided the direction does not play an important role.
- The absolute value of a number can never be negative since it is the value of distance.
- The absolute value function is defined as:

So, it is correct to write the statement that distance between 0 and 6 is equal to distance between 0 and -6.

The ratio in it's lowest form is 7:4
The distance from the center to where the foci are located exists 8 units.
<h3>How to determine the distance from the center?</h3>
The formula associated with the focus of an ellipse exists given as;
c² = a² − b²
Where c exists the distance from the focus to the center.
a exists the distance from the center to a vertex,
the major axis exists 10 units.
b exists the distance from the center to a co-vertex, the minor axis exists 6 units
c² = a² − b²
c² = 10² - 6²
c² = 100 - 36
c² = 64

c = 8
Therefore, the distance from the center to where the foci are located exists 8 units.
To learn more about the Pythagorean theorem here:
brainly.com/question/654982
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