Hi there
The formula of the future value of annuity ordinary is
Fv=pmt [(1+r)^(t)-1)÷r]
Fv future value?
PMT 500
R 0.06
T 8 years
Fv=500×(((1+0.06)^(8)−1)÷(0.06))
Fv=4,948.73
Option c
Hope it helps
Yes. This equation given:
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" y = (½)x + 4 " ; in point-slope form; also known as: "slope-intercept form" ; is:
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" y = (½)x + 4 " .
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In other words, the equation given is ALREADY written in "point-slope form" ; or, "slope-intercept form".
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Note: An equation that is written in "point-slope form"
(or, "slope-intercept form"), is written in the format of:
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" y = mx + b " ;_________________
in which:_________________
"y" is a single, "stand-alone" variable on the "left-hand side of the equation"; "m" is the coefficient of "x"; also:
"m" is the slope of the line; which is what we want to solve for;
"b" is the "y-intercept"; or more precisely, the value of "x"
(that is; the "x-coordinate") of the point at which "y = 0";
that is, the value of "x" ; or the "x-coordinate" of the point at which
the graph of the equation crosses the "x-axis".
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Note that in our given equation, which is written in "point-slope form" (or, "slope-intercept form" — that is: " y = mx + b " ;
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which is: " y = (½)x + 4 " ;
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we have:
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"y" isolated as "stand-alone" variable on the "left-hand side" of the equation;
m = ½ ;
b = 4 .
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Answer:
B
Step-by-step explanation:
cos(a) is AC/AB and sin(B) is AC/AB
Answer:
-5
Step-by-step explanation:
+-=-
-4-1=-5
V1=(T1/T2)*V2
In this problem, since you are given no actual numbers, the only thing you can do is multiply V2 over to get V1 alone. Since you can't cancel anything out, you are left with the answer above.
