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3 years ago

What is the future value i I plan to invest $200,000 for 5 years and the interest rate is 5%?

Business

1 answer:

denis23 [38]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Initial capital $200,000

Period 5 years

interest rate 5%

Interest year 1 $10,000.00

Interest year 2 $10,500.00

Interest year 3 $11,025.00

Interest year 4 $11,576.25

Interest year 5 $12,155.06

Future Value= $255256.31

See the image attached

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If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4

Veronika [31]

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4 the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

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3 years ago

A reversing entry is the exact opposite of an adjusting entry made in a previous period. is made when a business disposes of an

Ulleksa [173]

Answer: A reversing entry: "is the exact opposite of an adjusting entry made in a previous period.".

Explanation: Reversion entries are an end-of-the-year technique that involves the reversal, on the first day of the new accounting period, of those end-of-year adjustment entries that cause expenses or income and therefore will result in payments or cash receipts. Its purpose is to allow company personnel to record routine transactions in a standard manner without referring to previous adjustment entries.

7 0

3 years ago

Most businesses replace their computers every two to three years. Assume that a computer costs $2,000 and that it fully deprecia

sineoko [7]

Answer:

$2000=Z/(1+i)^1+Z/(1+i)^2+Z/(1+i)^3

Explanation:

let Z be the annual minimum cash flow

The internal rate of approach can be used here, in other words, the rate of return at which capital outlay of $2000 is equal present values of future cash flows

In year 1, present value of cash =X/discount factor

year 1 PV=Z/(1+i)^1

year 2 PV=Z/(1+i)^2

year 3=Z/(1+i)^3

Hence,

$2000=Z/(1+i)^1+Z/(1+i)^2+Z/(1+i)^3

Solving for Z above would give the minimum annual cash flow that must be generated for the computer to worth the purchase

Assuming i, interest rate on financing is 12%=0.12

Z can be computed thus:

$2000=Z(1/(1+0.12)^1+(1/(1+0.12)^2+(1+0.12)^3)

$2000=Z*3.09497902

Z=$2000/3.09497902

Z=$646.21

3 0

3 years ago

A Quality Analyst wants to construct a sample mean chart for controlling a packaging process. He knows from past experience that

ZanzabumX [31]

On Monday and Tuesday, the process appears to be out of control.

Explanation:

There are five days Monday, Tuesday,Wednesday, Thursday and Friday. Monday and Tuesday have weight up to 21. Wednesday weights up to 21.
Thursday and Friday weigh up to 20. Except for Monday and Tuesday, all the days have packaged up to the value of 21. So Monday and Tuesday are the days that appear to be out of control.
On checking the package for each day he came to know that Monday and Tuesday have process out of control.

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3 years ago

Question #1

Allisa [31]

Answer:

Oligopoly.

Explanation:

An oligopoly can be defined as a market structure comprising of a small number of firms (sellers) offering identical or similar products, wherein none can limit the significant influence of others.

Hence, it is a market structure that is distinguished by several characteristics, one of which is either similar or identical products and dominance by few firms.

The characteristics of an oligopolistic market structure are;

1. Mutual interdependence between the firms.

2. Market control by many small firms.

3. Difficult entry to new firms.

According to the concentration ratio, when a small number of companies control more than 40 percent of a market, it is called an oligopoly.

5 0

3 years ago