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viktelen [127]
3 years ago
15

Colaw Co. pays all salaried employees on a biweekly basis. Overtime pay, however, is paid in the next biweekly period. Colaw acc

rues salaries expense only at its December 31 year end. Data relating to salaries earned in December 2014 are as follows: Last payroll was paid on 12/26/14, for the 2-week period ended 12/26/14. Overtime pay earned in the 2-week period ended 12/26/14 was $20,000. Remaining work days in 2014 were December 29, 30, 31, on which days there was no overtime. The recurring biweekly salaries total $360,000. Assuming a five-day workweek, Colaw should record a liability at December 31, 2014 for accrued salaries of _______.
Business
1 answer:
viva [34]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: the correct answer is $128,000

Explanation:

$20,000 (overtime pay)  + ($ 360,000 / 10*3).  Biweekly salaries are

$360,000 and the week has 5 days that's why we have to consider a biweekly salary for 10 days and multiple that by 3 days.

$20,000 + $108,000 = $128,000

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The motives of those involved in unethical behavior that caused the financial crisis in the real estate, banking, and mortgage industries included Option A greed and the wish to inflate their own earnings.

<h3>What is  unethical behavior?</h3>

unethical behavior bare behavior that is contrary to the rules and principle of the organization.

In most cases it is usually as a result of greed and the wish to inflate their own earnings.

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7 0
2 years ago
Happy employees what
lyudmila [28]
Employees be bonkers
7 0
3 years ago
A portfolio manager is considering the purchase of a bond with a 5.5% coupon rate that pays interest annually and matures in thr
dmitriy555 [2]

Answer:

The price of the bond is closest  $101.36  

Explanation:

It is noteworthy that a rational investor pays for a bond today the cash flows derivable from the bonds in future discounted to today's terms.

The future cash flows comprise of the yearly coupon interest of $5.5(5.5% *$100) for 3 years as well as the repayment of the principal $100 at the end of year 3.

To bring the cash inflows today's term, we multiply them  them by the discounting factor 1/(1+r)^N , where is the yield to maturity of 5% and N is the relevant the cash flow is received.

The discounting is done in attached spreadsheet leading $ 101.36  present value today.

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7 0
3 years ago
If accrued salaries were recorded on December 31 with a credit to Salaries Payable, the entry to record payment of these wages o
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

c. A debit to Salaries Payable and a credit to Cash.

Explanation:

As on December 31, entry to record the expense of Salaries which is accrued and not paid is

Salary A/c Dr.                

  To Salaries Payable

Now on the closing date, of previous year there is a liability outstanding of Salary Payable.

In the next year on 5th January the salary outstanding in opening balance sheet is paid.

For this, the payment will be made and accordingly, cash will be reduced.

Accordingly liability will be reduced for this, liability will be debited.

Therefore, correct option is

c. A debit to Salaries Payable and a credit to Cash.

6 0
3 years ago
Why does an unsecured loan have a higher interest rate than a secured loan?
salantis [7]
The banker has a set amount he or she can say yes it ok for the loan .
after that the banker has to ask the manager then the manger has to ask people higher up so what happens is in the bank when they have to get others opinions what happens is they share the cost of the loan if not payed back as a loss to both not just one
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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