Since there are two black queens out of 52 cards, there is a 2/52 chance of drawing a black queen first. This is equivalent to a 1/26 chance.
Now that we have removed a black queen, there are 51 cards left in the deck. 26 of them are red because we only took away a black card. This means that there is a 26/51 of drawing a red card next.
In order to find the probability of both of these happening, we multiply the two together. 1/26 * 26/51 = 26/1326. This reduces to 1/51. So, there is a 1/51 chance of drawing a black queen, then a red card.
Answer:
20
Step-by-step explanation:
x = price
y = number of keyboard
xy = 540
(x-2)(y+3) = 540
x = 540/y
==> x = 20
==> y = 27
Answer:
-5n + 8
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>1. What is the difference?</u>
The sequence goes down by 5. This means that the formula will have -5n in it.
<u>2. Work out the term before the first term.</u>
The first term is 3, and we know that the sequence goes up by 5. So, to get the term before 3 we would add 5.
3 + 5 = 8 Remember, this is positive 8. (+8)
<u>3. Put that term at the end of the equation. </u>
We have -5n already and we just worked out the term before the first one which is positive 8 - so put that at the end of the equation.
-5n + 8 This is our answer!
Just to prove it works:
<em>Substitute: n = term</em>
Lets see if we can get the 3rd term which is -7. (n = 3)
-5(3) + 8
-15 + 8 = -7
See, it works!