The answer is $48.
The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. $48 is the opportunity cost, assuming the seller sells internally
It is calculated as follows:
Opportunity cost= Production cost- Outlay cost
= 60-12
=$48
Opportunity costs represent the potential benefits which any individual or investor, or any business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.
Because the opportunity costs are generally unseen by definition, they can be easily overlooked. Understanding of the potential missed opportunities when any business or any individual chooses one investment over another investment allows for better decision making.
To know more about opportunity cost here:
brainly.com/question/13036997
#SPJ4
Cassidy's approximate monthly payment stands at $1420. if Cassidy lives planning to obtain a loan from her bank for $210,000 for a new home.
<h3>What is the payment monthly?</h3>
The monthly payment is the quantity paid per month to pay off the loan in the time period of the loan. When a loan is taken out it isn't only the top amount, or the original payment loaned out, that needs to be repaid, but also the good that accumulates.
<h3>What is a loan amortization schedule?</h3>
It is described as the systematic method of representing loan payments according to the time in which the principal amount and interest exist mentioned in a list manner
It is given that:
- Cassidy lives planning to obtain a loan from her bank for $210,000 for a new home.
- A fixed annual interest rate of 2.7% compounded monthly for 15 years.
The formula is:

Plug all the values in the above formula:

$1420.
Hence,
Cassidy's approximate monthly payment stands at $1420.
To learn more about monthly payment, refer
brainly.com/question/2151013
#SPJ4
Answer:
Inventory $200,000
Cash $50,000
Notes payable $150,000
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Cost of the inventory purchased = $200,000
Amount paid in cash = one-fourth
= one-fourth of $200,000
= $50,000
For the remaining balance signed a note i.e = $200,000 - $50,000
= $150,000
Now,
This transaction will be recorded as:
Inventory $200,000
Cash $50,000
Notes payable $150,000
Answer:
Employers treat the taxable fringe benefits the same as cash compensation.
Explanation:
Taxable fringe benefits "are included in gross income and subject to federal withholding, social security, and Medicare taxes".
Fringe benefits are "perks and additions to normal compensation that companies give their employees, such as life insurance, tuition assistance, or employee discounts".
* The cost of the taxable fringe benefit is deductible to the employer, not the value of the benefit to the employee.
FALSE, the taxable fringe benefit is not deductible from the employer.
* Employers treat the taxable fringe benefits the same as cash compensation.
TRUE, and as we can see on the definition above the taxable fringe benefits are treated as a compensation that comapnies giv their employees.