Answer:
Cost of equity = 19.1
%
Explanation:
Cost of equity = required rate of return + flotation cost
The Capital assets pricing model would be used to determined the required rate of return
<em>The capital asset pricing model (CAPM): relates the price of a share to the market risk or systematic risk. The systematic risk is that which affects all the all the economic agents, e.g inflation, interest rate e.t.c </em>
Using the CAPM , the required rate of return is given as follows:
E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)
E(r) - required return
β- Beta
Rm- Return on market
Rf- Risk-free rate
DATA
E(r) =? , Rf- 3%, Rm-14% , β- 1.1, flotation cost - 4%
E(r) = 3% + 1.1× (14% - 3%) = 15.1
%
Cost of equity = required rate of return + flotation cost
= 15.1
% + 4% = 19.1
%
Cost of equity = 19.1
%
Answer:
None of the above
Explanation:
A sensitivity analysis measures how under a certain set of assumptions, different values of an independent variable influence the dependent variable. It is also known as what if analysis and it is based on various assumptions. Options given in the question like changes in depreciation tax shield over a project's life, changes in production levels with the changes in revenue etc. are absolutely certain to an extent, or in other words, bound to happen.
Answer:
In real dollars, Babe Ruth's salary = $80,000 / 0.0645 (CPI 1930) = $1,240,000
Since Babe Ruth was the highest paid baseball player back then, if we compare his updated salary to Kershaw's salary, it represents only = $1,240,000 / $33,000,000 = 3.76%.
That means that most of the players' salary raise was due to other factors, not just inflation.
Answer: Long-term assets are assets with a duration of more than one year. From the list the parties classified as long-term assets are three:
- Land
- Buildings
-Equipment
The rest of the games are classified as:
Accounts receivable (short-term assets)
Notes payable (due in three years) (Long-term liabilities)
Accounts payable (Short-term liabilities)
Retained Revenue (Equity)
Prepaid rental (Short-term assets)
Unearned Renvenue (Short-term liabilities)
Notes payable (due in six months) (Short Term Liabilities)
Answer:
bad debt expense 6,000 debit
allowance for uncollectible amounts 6,000 credit
Explanation:
expected allowance balance:
account receivable x expected uncollectible amount
200,000 x 4% = 8,000
currently the allowance balance is 2,000
so the amount of the adjustment will be to move the balance to 8,000 from 2,000: adjusting entry for 6,000