Answer:
8.2%
Explanation:
As we know that:
r = (Future Value / Present Value)^(1/Time) - 1
Here
Future Value is $430,065.11
Present Value is $3,800
Time is 60 years
By putting values, we have:
r = ($430,065.11 / $3,800)^(1/60) - 1
r = (113.16)^(1/60) - 1
r = 1.082 - 1 = 8.2%
Answer:
Jason's accountant should consider a single plantwide rate to correct the problem.
Explanation:
If a company manufactures products that consume factory overhead costs in different ways, a single plantwide rate may not accurately allocate factory overhead costs to the products and cause cost distortions. Cost distortions can cause companies to lose sales and make incorrect decisions on expanding production.
Answer:
See Below
Explanation:
Expected value is the sum of the products of the probability and payoff of each.
<u>Wager 1:</u>
probability of heads and tails, both is 0.5
Win = 440
Loose = 110
So,
Expected Value = 440(0.5) + (-110)(0.5) = 220 - 55 = $165
<u>Wager 2:</u>
Similar to wager 1
Win = 770
Loose = 220
So,
Expected value = 770(0.5) + (-220)(0.5) = 385 - 110 = $275
2nd wager is better, in this sense.
A positive incentive for consumers is a coupon clipped from a newspaper.
Hope This Helps!!
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