Answer:
Section 16(b) of the 1934 Securities Exchange Act provides for recapture by the corporation of all profits realized by an insider from the purchase or sale of corporate stock within a 6 month period.
Explanation:
This section of the 1934 Securities Exchange Act was put in place to uphold fairness and equity in the financial markets. Without its provision, insiders could advantage of privileged information and exploit it for personal gain.
Answer:
$28.125
Explanation:
Dividend D1= $2
(Dividend is given at the end of 1 year)
Growth g= 4% or 0.04
Required Return r = 12% or 0.12
Step1- Share price of company A today
As per Dividend Growth Model
Share price =Expected dividend/(required return - growth rate)
S0 = Do(1+g) / (r-g)
S0 = D1/(r-g)
S0 = 2/(0.12-0.04)
S0 = $25
Therefore share price of company A today for given details will be $25
Step2 - Expected dividend at the end of 3 years
D4=D0(1+g)^4
( as we already have D1 which is one time growth multiplied, therefore to find dividend at the end of 3rd year we will multiply 1 Less growth multiplier to D1)
D4= D1(1+g)^3
D4 = 2(1+0.04)^3
D4 = $2.25
Step3 - Share price of company A in 3 year
Share price =Expected dividend/(required return - growth rate)
S3 = D4/(r-g)
S3 = 2.25/(0.12-0.04)
S3 = $28.125
Therefore share price of company A in 3 years for given details will be $28.125
<span>If you take the question very literally, you have just joined the organisation and been offered two options. The present value of each is still $0 as you have not yet selected either or received any payment. However, assuming the question is aimed at establishing which option is better over the two year period, the following explanation applies.
Salary arrangement 1 is 7,400 monthly for 24 months
Assuming the whole salary is invested each month, and the annual interest rate is 6%, and that it is paid at the start of each month then the following formula will apply:
Present value = previous value + (previous value * interest rate) + monthly payment
Using this formula for a 24 month period results in present value of $188,196.47
Salary arrangement 2 is 33,000 initially and 6,100 monthly for 24 months
Using the same assumptions as above, and the same formula for 24 month period results in present value of $191,692.01
The main difference is the initial payment which is accruing interest throughout the period and therefore salary arrangement 2 results in a higher present value.</span>
Answer:
$400,000
Explanation:
Since at December 31, Year 5, Tedd's tax advisor believed that an unfavorable outcome was <u>probable</u>. And a <u>reasonable estimate </u>of additional taxes was $400,000 but could be as much as $600,000.
Although after the Year 5 financial statements were issued, Tedd received and accepted an IRS settlement offer of $450,000.
Tedd should have included an amount of $400,000 as accrued liability in its December 31, Year 5 balance sheet
The reason is that according to the International Financial Reporting Standards, a PROVISION must be made as long as the conditions below were obtainable at year end.
- Existing Condition (which in this case is the tax dispute with the IRS)
- Probable Cash Outflow (which Tedd's Tax adviser confirmed)
- Reliable Estimate of Outflow ( which the scenario stated ''A reasonable estimate of additional taxes was $400,000'')
Hence, such 'reasonable estimate is the appropriate amount for inclusion in the financial statements.
