D.
you do change in y divided by change in x
(5-1)/(1-0) = (4)/1=4
Answer:8
Step-by-stop explanation: (6) x 3 will be 18 - 10 = 8
11/7
..................................
Answer:
59
Step-by-step explanation:
alternate interior angles are congruent
Answer: it seems to be D, but the equation makes practically no sense!
The value of the factor changes for the different amounts of service years and vacation weeks.
Step-by-step explanation: The equation means that the employee is trying to figure out the value of the "v-factor" for how vacation time is earned.
If you substitute the number of service years into the left side of the "formula" and vacation weeks on the right side, then solve for "v", v(15)=5 you get v= 1/3 or 0.33
If you substitute other numbers, like v(2)=2, so v= 1 then v(30) = 8, v = 4/15 or 0.2667. You see the factor's value decreases. The company is much more generous to to employees with one or two years of service than with the older ones.
