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olga2289 [7]
3 years ago
12

acuBlade Castings Inc. casts blades for turbine engines. Within the Casting Department, alloy is first melted in a crucible, the

n poured into molds to produce the castings. On May 1, there were 700 pounds of alloy in process, which were 30% complete as to conversion. The Work in Process balance for these 700 pounds was $74,410, determined as follows: Direct materials (700 x $100) $70,000 Conversion (700 x 30% x $21) 4,410 $74,410 During May, the Casting Department was charged $633,600 for 6,600 pounds of alloy and $53,520 for direct labor. Factory overhead is applied to the department at a rate of 150% of direct labor. The department transferred out 6,800 pounds of finished castings to the Machining Department. The May 31 inventory in process was 20% complete as to conversion. a1. Prepare the May journal entry for the Casting Department for the materials charged to production. Work in Process-Casting Department Materials-Alloy
Business
1 answer:
romanna [79]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

For complete understanding lets first make EPU (Equivalent Production Unit)

                                                             Direct Material     Conversion

Units completed &transferred out         6,800                      6,800

Closing WIP                                               500                        100(500*20%)

Total units                                                7,300                       6,900

Closing WIP units = Opening WIP +During the year - units completed

                              = 700                 +     6,600           - 6,800

                              =500 units

On the basis of weighted average method following will be cost per unit:

Total Direct material cost/unit = (70,000 + 633,600)/7,300  = 96.3835

Total conversion cost/unit =(4,410+53,520+80,280(53,520*150%))/6,900=20.0304

Therefore, following would be the entries

WIP                      767,400

Material                               633,600

Conversion                          133.800 (53,520+80,280)

Finished goods    791,615 (96.3838+20.0304)*6,800

WIP                                        791,615

Working for closing unit

Material (500*96.3835) = 48,191

Conversion (500*20%*20.0304) = 2003.043

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Real Cool produces two different models of air conditioners. The company produces the mechanical systems in their components dep
brilliants [131]

Answer:

1. Plantwide Overhead Rate $ 220.06 per machine hour

Total Cost per Unit= Model 145 $ 555.96 per unit

Total cost per unit = Model 212 $ 616.94 per unit

Profit (loss)    Model 145  219.04

Loss Model 212  (26.94)

Explanation:

Real Cool

<u>Process Activity               Overhead Cost         Driver         Quantity</u>

<u><em>Components </em></u>

Changeover                      $452,000    Number of batches    750

Machining                             300,200        Machine hours      7,640

<u>Setups                                229,000        Number of setups      40</u>

                                          $981,200

<u><em>Finishing</em></u>  

Welding                         $180,100            Welding hours         3,600

Inspecting                     231,000       Number of inspections    850

<u>Rework                         81,250              Rework orders             210</u>

                                   $472,350

<u><em>Support </em></u>

Purchasing                $136,500           Purchase orders           480

Providing space          30,300          Number of units          4,500

<u>Providing utilities        50,910            Number of units          4,500</u>

                                  $227,710

Additional production information concerning its two product lines follows.

                                        Model 145           Model 212

Units produced                   1,500                  3,000

Welding hours                    1,400                   2,200

Batches                                 375                       375

Number of inspections          610                       340

Machine hours                       2,290                    6,350

Setups                                      20                             20

Rework orders                         80                             130

Purchase orders                    320                            160

We find the plantwide overhead rate by dividing the total overhead with the total machine hours.

1. Plantwide Overhead Rate= Total Factory Overhead/ Total Machine Hours

Plantwide Overhead Rate= $981,200+ $472,350+$227,710/7640

                                       = 1681260/7640= $ 220.06 per machine hour

We multiply the machine hours of each model to get the overhead .

2.  Cost of Model 145

Materials and Labor  = $220 *1500= $330,000

Overhead = $220.06 *2290= $503,937.4

Total Cost = $83,3937.4

Total Cost per Unit= $83,3937.4/1500= $ 555.96 per unit

Cost Of Model 212

Materials and Labor  = $150 *3000= $ 450,000

Overhead = $220.06 *6350= $ 1400,810

Total Cost = $ 1850810

Total cost per unit = $ 1850810/ 3000= $ 616.94 per unit

We find the profit or loss by subtracting the mfg cost from the market value.

3.                                        Model 145          Model 212

Market Price                     $775                     $590

<u>Manufacturing Cost          ($555.96)               ($616.94)</u>

<u>Profit (loss)                          219.04                      (26.94)</u>

6 0
3 years ago
A corporate treasury working out of Vienna with operations in New York simultaneously calls Citibank in New York City and Barcla
WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

Given $1 million and the following quotes:

Bank C - $0.7551-61/€

Bank B - $0.7545-75/€

There are two different arbitrage strategies that can be attempted. The first is to buy euros from bank B, and then sell them to bank C:

Buy euros Bank B:

Euros to be bought = $1,000,000 x  Euro / $ 0.7575

Euros to be bought = 1,320,132.01 Euros

Sell euros Bank C:

Euros to be sold = 1,320,132.01 euros x $0.7551 / Euro

Euros to be sold = $996,831.68

The profit/loss can be calculated by subtracting the original starting amount of dollars by the post-arbitrage amount:

Profit/loss = $996,831.68 - $1,000,000

Profit/loss = -$3,168.32

The second strategy involves buy euros from bank C and selling them to bank B: Buy euros Bank C:

Euros to be bought = $1,000,000 x  Euro / $ 0.7561

Euros to be bought = 1,322,576.38 Euros

Sell euros Bank B:

Euros to be sold = 1,322,576.38 euro x 0.7545 / Euro

Euros to be sold = $997,883.88

The profit/loss can be calculated by subtracting the original starting amount of dollars by the post-arbitrage amount:

Profit/loss = $997,883.88 - $1,000,000

Profit/loss = -$2,116.12

In both instances a loss is made by the arbitrage. The arbitrager cannot make a profit using these quotes.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following factors has the greatest impact in calculating FICO scores? Select one of the options below as your answe
SSSSS [86.1K]
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "c. length of credit history."  the factor that has the greatest impact in calculating FICO scores is that c. length of credit history<span>
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4 0
3 years ago
Which area of study involves microeconomics?
Mazyrski [523]

Answer:

The science of microeconomics covers a variety of specialized areas of study including: Industrial Organization: the entry and exit of firms, innovation, and the role of trademarks. Labor Economics: wages, employment, and labor market dynamics.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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You got asked to analyze a 5 year project for your firm. The project produces an annual revenue of $28,500, but requires an annu
hram777 [196]

Answer:

15,300

72.70%

Explanation:

After tax cash flow = (revenue - cost - depreciation) (1 - tax rate) + depreciation

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

($20,000 - $5,000) / 5 = $3,000

($28,500 - $5,000 - $3000) x (1 - 0.4) + $3000 = $15,300

Terminal year cash flow = after tax cash flow + salvage value

$15,300 + $5,000 = $20,300

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after-tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested

IRR can be calculated with a financial calculator  

Cash flow in year 0 = $20,000.

Cash flow in year 1 - 4= $15,300

Cash flow in year 5 = $20,300

IRR = 72.70%

To find the IRR using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button.  

8 0
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