Answer:
a. Point S
b. Line segment PT and Line segment ST
c. PSQRU
d. Lines PR and SQ
e. Plane C and Plane QRS
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
![W=\{\left[\begin{array}{ccc}a+2b\\b\\-3a\end{array}\right]: a,b\in\mathbb{R} \}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=W%3D%5C%7B%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Da%2B2b%5C%5Cb%5C%5C-3a%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%3A%20a%2Cb%5Cin%5Cmathbb%7BR%7D%20%5C%7D)
Observe that if the vector ![x=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}x\\y\\z\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%3D%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Dx%5C%5Cy%5C%5Cz%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
is in W then it satisfies:
![\left[\begin{array}{ccc}x\\y\\z\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{c}a+2b\\b\\-3a\end{array}\right]=a\left[\begin{array}{c}1\\0\\-3\end{array}\right]+b\left[\begin{array}{c}2\\1\\0\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Dx%5C%5Cy%5C%5Cz%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%3D%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bc%7Da%2B2b%5C%5Cb%5C%5C-3a%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%3Da%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bc%7D1%5C%5C0%5C%5C-3%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%2Bb%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bc%7D2%5C%5C1%5C%5C0%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
This means that each vector in W can be expressed as a linear combination of the vectors ![\left[\begin{array}{c}1\\0\\-3\end{array}\right], \left[\begin{array}{c}2\\1\\0\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bc%7D1%5C%5C0%5C%5C-3%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%2C%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bc%7D2%5C%5C1%5C%5C0%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
Also we can see that those vectors are linear independent. Then the set
![\{\left[\begin{array}{c}1\\0\\-3\end{array}\right], \left[\begin{array}{c}2\\1\\0\end{array}\right]\}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5C%7B%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bc%7D1%5C%5C0%5C%5C-3%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%2C%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bc%7D2%5C%5C1%5C%5C0%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%5C%7D)
is a basis for W and the dimension of W is 2.
Solution:
we have been asked to find
If you ran exactly one mile, how many feet did you run.
It mean , we will have to convert miles in feet.
As we know that
1 mile is equivalent to 5280 feet.
Hence , we can use this conversion to get the exact value of miles in feet.
If you ran exactly one mile,it mean you ran exactly for 5280 feet.
Answer:
A. The probability is 1/12. B. The probability is 1/10
Step-by-step explanation:
Yes
because they have the same volume
