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zlopas [31]
4 years ago
5

Immigration and inflation: Suppose a large number of new immigrants enter the labor market. Assume this increase in the supply o

f labor provides a drag on wage increases: wages rise by less than the prevailing rate of inflation over the next year. Use the short-run model to explain how the economy responds to this change. Jones, Charles I.. Macroeconomics (Fourth Edition) (p. 343). W. W. Norton
Business
1 answer:
7nadin3 [17]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

See explanation below for answer.

Explanation:

When using the short run model, the capital stock is fixed and cannot adjust to changes in the demand for capital. We will be using the short run model to analyze the effect of immigration and inflation on the economy.

In an economy, the primary determinant of how immigration can affect wages and employment is the degree to which the workers who have newly arrived will replace or complement the existing workers.

The level of wages may drop in the short run for the kind of workers who can be easily replaced by immigrants, whereas the level of wages may rise for the workers whose expertise can be complemented by the new workers.

For instance, in a situation where foreign-born construction workers enter the labor market, thereby causing a decrease in construction workers’ wages. The firms will respond by employing more construction workers, and since additional first-line supervisors may be needed to supervise the activities of the expanded workforce, the demand and consequently, the wages of these complementary workers could increase.

Further, where the availability of low-skilled immigrants at lower wages allows businesses to expand, total employment will rise.

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On January 1, 2019, Mark Corporation purchased bonds with a face value of $500,000 for $475,413.60. The bonds are due December 3
Sergio [31]

Answer:

Debt Securities         500,000 debit

           cash                 475,414 credit

           discount on debt Securities  24,586 credit

--to record purchase of bonds--

cash                                          25,000 debit

discount on debt Securities 3,524.82 debit

          Interest revenue                  28524.82 credit

--to record first interest coupon collection--

478,938 x 0.12/2 = 28736.31 revenue

cash 25000

amortization 3736.31

cash                                          25,000 debit

discount on debt Securities   3,736.31 debit

          Interest revenue                   28,736.31 credit

--to record second interest coupon collection--

cash                                        127,000

discount on debt securities 4.331,25

     debt securities                            125,000

     short-capital gain                            6,331.25

--to record sale of bonds---

after this and the subsequent interest payment, the discount is write-off entirely and in maturity we record:

cash 375,000 debit

    debt securities    375,000 credit

--to record maturity of the bonds on Dec 31th 2021--

Explanation:

procceds         475,414

face value    <u>500,000</u>

discount              -24,586

interest will be calcualte as the result of the carying value times the market rate:

475,414 x 0.12/2 = 28524.82

cash inflow: 500,000 x 10% / 2 = 25,000

amortization on discount: 3,524.82

second will be the same procedure:

478,938 x 0.12/2 = 28736.31 revenue

cash 25000

amortization 3736.31

partial sale of 1/4 of the bond:

500,000 / 4 = 125,000

500,000 discount outstanding of 17.325‬

125,000 has a discount of 4.331,25

<em><u>value of the bonds sold:</u></em>

125,000 - 4331.25 = 120.668,75‬

sale at 127,000

short capital-gian on sale: 6.331,25‬

3 0
3 years ago
During December, the production department of a process operations system completed and transferred to finished goods a total of
wolverine [178]

Answer:

$2.81

Explanation

Completed and transferred (79,000 * 100%)     79,000

<u><em>Ending Work in Process</em></u>

Direct materials (14,000*60%)                             <u>8,400 </u>

Equivalent units                                                   <u>87,400</u>

Costs of beginning inventory                               $58,800

Costs incurred this period                                    <u>$186,900</u>

Total costs                                                             <u>$245,700</u>

Cost per equivalent unit = Total costs / Equivalent units

Cost per equivalent unit = $245,700 / 87,400

Cost per equivalent unit = 2.811212814645309

Cost per equivalent unit = $2.81

3 0
3 years ago
Question 18
Scilla [17]

Answer:

if, before the sale, notice is given to Fertile Farm.

Explanation:

hope this helps you have a nice day :)

5 0
3 years ago
On January 1, Year 1, Dunn Brothers, Inc., purchased a new smartphone case making machine at a cost of $80,000. The estimated re
Gala2k [10]

Answer:

Depreciation expense under:

  • the Straight-line method for Years 1 to 4 is $71,000.
  • the Units-of-production method for Years 1 to 4 is $71,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $75,000.

Explanation:

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($80,000 - $9,000) / 4 years = $17,750 yearly depreciation expense.

Depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4 is $17,750 x 4 years $71,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($80,000 - $9,000) / 710,000 units x 213,000 units = $21,300

At Year 2, DE = $71,000 / 710,000 units x 156,200 units = $15,620

At Year 3, DE = $71,000 / 710,000 units x 195,250 units = $19,525

At Year 4, DE = $71,000 / 710,000 units x 145,550 units = $14,555

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Year 1, followed by Year 2.  

Depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $71,000 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/4years = 25%, then 25% multiplied by 2 to give 50%

At Year 1, 50% X $80,000 = $40,000

At Year 2, 50% X $40,000 ($80,000 - $40,000) = $20,000

At Year 3, 50% X $20,000 ($40,000 - $20,000) = $10,000

At Year 4, 50% X $10,000 ($20,000 - $10,000) = $5,000 (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $75,000 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

5 0
3 years ago
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3 years ago
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