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Jobisdone [24]
4 years ago
7

Currently requiring a little help on this, would not mind any answer <3

Mathematics
1 answer:
trasher [3.6K]4 years ago
7 0
\bf \sqrt{\cfrac{50x^6y^3}{9x^8}}=\cfrac{5y^c\sqrt{2y}}{dx}\\\\&#10;-------------------------------\\\\&#10;\sqrt{\cfrac{50x^6y^3}{9x^8}}~~&#10;\begin{cases}&#10;50=2\cdot 25\\&#10;\qquad 2\cdot 5^2\\&#10;x^6=x^{3\cdot 2}\\&#10;\qquad (x^3)^2\\&#10;y^3=y^{2+1}\\&#10;\qquad y^2\cdot y\\&#10;9=3^2\\&#10;x^8=x^{4\cdot 2}\\&#10;\qquad (x^4)^2&#10;\end{cases}\implies \cfrac{\sqrt{50x^6y^3}}{\sqrt{9x^8}}\implies \cfrac{\sqrt{2\cdot 5^2(x^3)^2\cdot y^2\cdot y}}{\sqrt{3^2(x^4)^2}}

\bf \cfrac{5x^3y\sqrt{2y}}{3x^4}\implies \cfrac{5y\sqrt{2y}}{3x^4x^{-3}}\implies \cfrac{5y\sqrt{2y}}{3x^{4-3}}\implies \cfrac{5y^{\stackrel{\downarrow }{1}}\sqrt{2y}}{\stackrel{\downarrow }{3} x}
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Let X equal the number of flips of a fair coin that are required to observe
Nataliya [291]

Answer:

(a) I attached a photo with the diagram.

(b) f(x) = \big( \frac{1}{2} \big)^{x-1}

(c) 1/4

(d) 4

(e) k^2/2

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) I attached a photo with the diagram.

(b) The easiest way to think about this part is in terms of combinatorics. Think about it like this.

To begin with, look at the three each level of the three represents a possible outcome of throwing the coin n-times. If you throw the coin 3 times at the end in total there are 8 possible outcomes. But The favorable outcomes are just 2.

 1  - Your first outcome is HEADS and all the others are different except the last one.

 2  - Your first outcome is TAILS and all the others are different except the last one.

Therefore the probability of the event is

f(x) = P(X=x) = \frac{2}{2^x}  = \frac{1}{2^{x-1}} = \big( \frac{1}{2} \big)^{x-1}

(c)

P(X = 0) = 0 because it is not possible to have two consecutive tails or heads.

E(X > 4) = 1 - P(X \leq 3) = 1 - ( P(X = 0 ) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3))\\= 1 - ( \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} ) = \frac{1}{4}

(d)

Remember that this is a geometric distribution therefore

E[X] = p/(1-p), in this case  p = 1/2 so E[X] = 1 and

E[X+1]^2 = ( E[X] +1 )^2  = (1+1)^2 = 2^2 = 4

Also

(e)

This is a geometric distribution so its variance is

Var(X) = \frac{1-p}{p^2} = 1/2 / 1/4 = 1/2

And using properties of variance

Var(kX - k ) = Var(kX) = k^2 var(X) = k^2 /2

3 0
4 years ago
Anyone know this?I need helppp
Fittoniya [83]

Answer:

nope sorry

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
X + 10 = 2x<br>solve for x​
Nady [450]

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>10 + 10 = 2x</em>

<em>2x = 20</em>

<em>10 + 10 = 20</em>

<em>x = 10</em>

have a nice day and mark me brainliest! :)

5 0
4 years ago
URGENT, HELP ASAP
Ilya [14]

Answer:

The sales will surpass 37 million in about 2013.

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer can be found via solving an exponential inequality as follows:

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Any number of years larger than 12.6 will satisfy the inequality, i.e., after more than 12.6 years from year 2000, the annual sales will surpass 37 million. The answer to the exact question will then be: in about 2013 the sales will surpass 37 million.

4 0
3 years ago
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