Answer:
Oct 1
Dr Supplies $620
Cr Accounts Payable $620
Oct 6
Dr Cash $350
Cr Fees Earned $350
Octd 7
Dr Equipment $2500
Cr Cash$900
Cr Accounts Payable $1400
Oct 9
Dr Accounts Payable $620
Cr Cash $620
Explanation:
Preparation of the journal entries
Oct 1
Dr Supplies $620
Cr Accounts Payable $620
Oct 6
Dr Cash $350
Cr Fees Earned $350
Octd 7
Dr Equipment $2500
Cr Cash$900
Cr Accounts Payable $1400
($2,500-$900)
Oct 9
Dr Accounts Payable $620
Cr Cash $620
Answer: Production possibility frontier (PPF).
Explanation: PPF is curve on a graph which depicts the situation which you have asked in a question. For your ease i will upload a picture of that curve so that you can understand the answer better. For better understanding the graph below uses the example of Cotton as a good.
Answer:
Net Income 193,000
Non-monetary terms:
Depreciation expense 25,000
amortization expense 10,000
gain on disposal <u> (7,000) </u>
Adjusted Income 221,000
Change in Working Capital:
Increase in A/R (27,000)
Decreasein Inv 17,000
Increase in Prepaid (5,000)
Increase Accrued /P 11,000
Decreasein A/P (6,000)
Change In Working Capital (10,000)
From Operating Activities 211,000
Investing
Sale of Equipment 47,000
Financing
Bonds Issued 60,000
Cash Flow 318,000
Beginning Cash 99,000
Cash Flow 318,000
Ending Cash 417,000
Explanation:
We first remove the non.monetary concetps from the net income.
Then we adjust for the change in working capital which are the incrase and decrease in the current assets and liabilities account
Increase in asset and decrease in liabilities represent cash outflow
while the opposite is true when an asset decrease(convert to cash) or a liablity increase (delay of the payment)
Answer:
The beta is 1
Explanation:
The computation of beta using the CAPM model is shown below:
As we know that
Expected rate of return = Risk free rate of return + Beta × Market risk premium
9.5% = 5% + Beta × 9.0%
9.5% - 5% = Beta × 9.0%
9.0% = Beta × 9.0%
So, the beta is 1
We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come
And, the same is to be considered
Answer:
Using Traditional allocation method
Allocation rate per unit
=<u> Budgeted overhead</u>
Budgeted direct labour hours
Brass
Overhead allocation rate
= <u>$47,500</u>
700 hours
= $67.86 per direct labour hour
Gold
= <u>$47,500</u>
1,200 hours
= $39.58 per direct labour hour
Using activity-based costing
Brass
Allocation rate for material cost pool
= <u>$12,500</u>
400
= $31.25 per material moved
Gold
Allocation rate for material cost pool
= <u>$12,500</u>
100
= $125 per material moved
Brass
Allocation rate for machine set-up pool
= <u>$35,000</u>
400
= $87.50
Gold
Allocation rate for machine set-up pool
= <u>$35,000</u>
600
= $58.33
Explanation:
Using traditional allocation method, the overheads for material cost pool and machine set-up pool will be added. The overhead allocation rate per unit is the division of total overhead by the direct labour hours for each product.
Using activity-based costing, the material cost pool overhead will be divided by the material moved for each product in order to obtain allocation rate for each product.
The allocation rate for machine set-up pool is obtained by dividing the machine set-up overhead by the number of machine set-up for each product.