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zhenek [66]
3 years ago
12

Find the periodic payments PMT necessary to accumulate the given amount in an annuity account. (Assume end-of-period deposits an

d compounding at the same intervals as deposits. Round your answer to the nearest cent.) $30,000 in a fund paying 2% per year, with monthly payments for 10 years
Business
1 answer:
ikadub [295]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$ 226.04

Explanation:

Given:

Paying fund, FV = $ 30000

Interest rate, i = 2%

Time, t = 10 years

Now,

\textup{PMT}=\textup{FV}[\frac{i}{(1+i)^n-1}]

since, the payment is made monthly

thus,

n = 10 × 12 = 120 months

i = 2% / 12 = 0.02 / 12

on substituting the values in the above equation, we get

PMT={30000}[\frac{\frac{0.02}{12}}{(1+{\frac{0.02}{12}})^{120}-1}]

or

PMT = $ 226.04

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3 years ago
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_____ is a form of financial exchange that involves the use of checks.
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Answer:

deposit money

Explanation:

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3 years ago
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Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

  - Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

  - Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

  - Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

  - Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

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3 years ago
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Expansionary monetary policy is usually has real expansionary short-run effects. as prices adjust, the long-run impact of?
denpristay [2]

Expansionary monetary policy is usually has real expansionary short-run effects. as prices adjust, the long-run impact of inflationary effect.

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It is a part of the general policy prescription of Keynesian economics which is  to be used during economic slowdowns as well as the recessions in order to moderate the downside of economic cycles.

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4 0
1 year ago
Constable Co. reported the following information at December 31, Year 1: Accounts Payable $ 4,620 Accounts Receivable 9,470 Cash
avanturin [10]

Answer:

The total of the credit balance accounts is $117,260

Explanation:

In the classified balance sheet, we summarize the asset and liabilities into various types

Like assets are divided into fixed assets, current assets, and intangible assets.

Likewise, liabilities are also divided into current liabilities, long term liabilities

In every balance sheet, the accounting equation has used that means

Total assets = Total liabilities + Shareholder equity

The total assets have the debit balances whereas the total liabilities and the shareholder equity have the credit balances

So, The computation is shown below:

= Accounts Payable + Common Stock + Notes Payable  + Retained Earnings + Wages Payable

= $4,620 + $91,200 + $2,620 + $14,210 + $4,610

= $117,260

6 0
3 years ago
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