Answer:
73,450 COGS
Explanation:
From the beginning inventory we add up purchase and freight cost and subtract the return made to the suplier and discount and allowance granted.
This will be the total cost available for sale.
Then we subtract the ending inventory to get the COGS
27,000 beginning inventory
+ 78,000 purchases
+ 350 freight-in
- 3,900 return and allowance
<u>- 6,000 </u>discount
95,450 good available for sale
<u>- 22,000 </u>ending inventory
73,450 COGS
The sales return impact the sales revenue not the COGS
Answer and Explanation:
As per the data given in the question,
The central bank have various tools to apply expansionary policy and these tools are :
- Reserve ratio.
- Discount rate.
- Open market operations.
The open market operations include the buying and selling of government owned securities by central bank to impact the monetary base in the economy. In case of any recession, the central bank should purchase government securities to enhance the money supply. Because whenever they do any kind of open market purchase there would definitely be increase in money in the economy. That's why increment in money supply decrease the interest rate in economy.
Nominal interest rate is the cost of borrowing so if there is decrement in interest rate, there would be consumption and investment activities. these both are the component of aggregate demand so the aggregate demand will increase, and this increment in aggregate demand helps the economy to recover in the situation of recession.
Answer:
So the depreciation in year 1 is $95,000
Explanation:
Depreciation is the accounting method that is used to allocate cost of an asset over its useful life. It is assumed that an asset losses values over a period and the salvage or terminal value is the value of the good after its useful life has ended.
Straight line method of depreciation assumes equal allocation of depreciation expense over the useful life of an asset.
In the given the asset value is $570,000 and the terminal value is $0
Using the formula
Depreciation= (Value of asset- Salvage value)/Number of useful years
Depreciation= (570,000-0)/6
Depreciation= $95,000 paid equally for 6 years
So the depreciation in year 1 is $95,000
Answer:
$24,000
Explanation:
For computing the implied goodwill, first, we have to calculate the total partners capital and total firm capital
Total partners capital = $80,000 + $40,000 + $36,000
= $156,000
Now the total firm capital would be
= $36,000 ÷ 20%
= $180,000
Now the implied goodwill would be
= $180,000 - $156,000
= $24,000
Answer:
The Price of Bond today = $997.07
Explanation:
Semi annual coupons = $1000 * 5% / 2
Semi annual coupons = $25
As 9 months is already over in the two year bond, the coupons are payable
3 months from now, 9 months from now and 15 months from now.
The present value of all these coupons and the principal should be equal to the price of the bond today. In case of continuous compounding, the formula for Present Value of any future Cash flow C is C*e^(-r*t).
Price of Bond = $25 * e^(-0.06*3/12) + 25*e^(-.061*9/12)+ 1025*e(-0.062*15/12)
Using the value of e as 2.71828
Price of Bond = $25 * 2.71828^(-0.06*3/12) + 25*2.71828^(-.061*9/12)+ 1025*2.71828(-0.062*15/12)
Price of Bond = $
25 * 2.71828 ^-0.015 + 25*2.71828^-0.04575 + 1025*2.71828^-0.0775
Price of Bond = $
25 * 1/2.71828^0.015 + 25*1/2.71828^0.04575 + 1025*1/2.71828^0.0775
Price of Bond = $997.07
