Answer:
C
Step-by-step explanation:
for f(x) and g(x) to be the inverse of each other, then
f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x ← must be true
This is shown in option C
3,001...............................................
Answer:
Infinite solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
The two equations are the same, so therefore, any value of x will result in an output that belongs to both lines, if you understand what I mean.
Hope this helps :)