The answer is 8.80%.
Explanation:
To answer this question we should use either the formula of present value (PV) or Future value (FV) . Either of them will give the answer because they are inverse to each other.
FV = PV(1 + r) ^t
Solving r, we get
r = (FV/FV)^(1-t) - 1
r = ($1,630,000 / $270)^(1-102) - 1
r = 0.0891 or 8.91%
Answer:
1. $4,400 Favorable
2. $14,000 Unfavorable
3. $9,600 Unfavorable
Explanation:
The computation of given question is shown below:-
1. Variable factory overhead Controllable Variance
= $142,600 - 6,000 × 24.5
= $142,600 - $147,000
= -$4,400
= $4,400 Favorable
Where, 24.5 = standard rate - fixed overhead rate
= $28 - $3.5
= $24.5
2. Fixed factory overhead volume variance
= $35,000 - 6,000 × $3.5
= $35,000 - $21,000
= $14,000 Unfavorable
3. Total factory overhead cost variance
= ($142,600 + $35,000) - (6,000 × $28)
= $177,600 - $168,000
= $9,600 Unfavorable
Answer:
b.net loss
Explanation:
A debit entry in the retained entry account may have two reasons dividend declaration entry and net loss adjustment entry. Form the dividend account we see there is no dividend entry of $18,000. So the only option is the net loss adjustment entry of $18,000.
Journal Entry for the adjustment is as follow
Dr. Retained Earning $18,000
Cr. Income Summary $18,000
Answer:
d) 201.39
Explanation:
Selling price = Cost price + mark-up
in this case: $ 125.39 + $79 = 201.39