Answer:
6,8,and 10
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
23
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The mean of X is 2
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the data in the question;
set of 10 cards consist of 5 red card and 5 blacks
cards are chosen, replaced and shuffled four times;
number of independent trials n = 4
now, since its is replaced, the probability of getting a red card in each trial will be;
p = 5/10 = 0.5
let X rep the number of red cards observed in the four trials.
the random variable follows binomial distribution where
n = 4 and p = 0.5
so
E(X) = ∑xP( X = x )
E(X) = np
we substitute
E(X) = 4 × 0.5
E(X) = 2
Therefore, The mean of X is 2
<u>AFTER YOU ANSWER 1000 OR MORE QUESTIONS</u>
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<u>I hope this helps</u> :) God bless
Answer:
0.00069104 approximately.
Step-by-step explanation:
You must first calculate the probability of not taking a ball with the letter B.
It would be the sum of the probabilities of taking I, N, G and O.
The probability of getting the letter I would be 15/75, that is 1/5. The same would be for the letter N, G and O. Since the 4 probabilities are equal.
Therefore it would remain (1/5) * 4 = 4/5.
Then the probability of not drawing a letter B would be 4/5.
However, in the case that it does not go out for 26 balls and that the ball that was taken out is not taken into account. It would be the multiplication of all events, that is:
(60/75) * (59/74) * (58/73) * (57/72) * ... * (35/50)
The result would be 0.00069104 approximately.
