Answer:
2.yes 3.no
Step-by-step explanation:
Eleven million seven hundred sixty thousand and eight hundred twenty five
Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
Convert 8 hours and 15 minutes into minutes- 8 x 60=480 480+15=495
100%-75%=25%
25%=0.25
0.25 x 495 = 123.75 minutes or 2 hour and 3.75 minutes
Hope this helps!!
Answer:
the correct answer is truly
Step-by-step explanation:
STOP CHEATING ON THID APP