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MrRissso [65]
3 years ago
9

Abbott Company uses the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts. Abbott estimates that 3% of credit sales will

be uncollectible. On January 1, Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a credit balance of $3,700. During the year, Abbott wrote off accounts receivable totaling $2,500 and made credit sales of $115,000. There were no sales returns during the year. After the adjusting entry, the December 31 balance in Bad Debt Expense will be
Business
1 answer:
Readme [11.4K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:Bad debts expense = $3,450

Explanation:Bad debt expense is the expense of account receivable  that a business understands will not be paid due to the inability of a customer to pay its outstanding debt. Bad debt can be calculated using the direct write off method and the allowance method.

Here Abbot company uses the allowance method by taking into consideration  a reserve  which is an estimated  percentage of the sales known as an adjusted risk  for its customers who may not pay.

     

Credit sales revenue  115, 000    

Estimated Bad debt   3%    

Bad debts expense   3% x 115,000 = $3,450

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All of the following statements regarding management accounting's role in assigning decision-making authority are true except: M
Olin [163]

Answer:

All statements are TRUE except Option "A"

Explanation:

Accounting control history is used for policy-making objectives, and historical information is redundant.

  • Managerial accounting is used for short-and long-term decision making that involve overall financial health. It helps businesses make administrative decisions–meaning to help increase the efficiency and productivity of the business–while also helping to make long-term investment decisions.

Therefore,all answers are correct except "A"

6 0
3 years ago
Rydell Inc. is evaluating a proposed capital budgeting project that will require an initial investment of $168,000. The project
Inessa [10]

Answer:

-$15,315.21

Reject the project

Explanation:

The net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.

The NPV can be found using a financial calculator.

Cash flow in year zero = -168,000

Cash flow in year 1 = $44,800

Cash flow in Year 2 = $51,700

Cash flow in Year 3 = $48,600

Cash flow in Year 4 = $47,900 

Interest rate = 10%

NPV = $-15,315.21

To find the NPV using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

3. Press compute

The decision rule with NPV is to accept the project if the npv is positive. Since the NPV calculated above is negative, the project should be rejected.

I hope my answer helps you

6 0
3 years ago
Since the 1970s, the largest area of job growth in the United States has been in the ______ sector; areas such as banking, healt
JulsSmile [24]

The largest area of job growth in the United States has been in the service sector.

<h3>What are the service sectors?</h3>

The service sector is commonly known as the tertiary sector. It is also known to be the third tier in the three-sector economy.

An Examples of service sector jobs are housekeeping, nursing, etc. The Service industries is made up of:

  • Banking
  • Communications
  • Wholesale and retail trade, etc.

Conclusively, The largest area of job growth in the United States as at 1970s has been in the service sector.

Learn more about service sector from

brainly.com/question/26521390

3 0
2 years ago
2700 thousand bonds with a face value of $1000 each, are sold at 106. The entry to record the issuance is
IceJOKER [234]

Date, bonds sold at a premium

Dr Cash $28620000000

   Cr Bonds payable $2,700,000,000

   Cr Premium on bonds payable $1,62,000,000

Explanation:

The total face value of the bonds is $1,000 x 2700,000 bonds = $2,700,000,000

since the bonds were sold at 106, their price was =

$2,700,000,000 x 106% = $28620000000

the difference between the face value and the actual market price = $2,862,000,000 - $2,700,000,000 = $1,62,000,000 must be recorded as premium on bonds payable (increases the bonds' carrying value)

<h3>What is the difference between market value and face value?</h3>
  • The market value is the actual price at which the security trades on the open market, as well as the price that fluctuates when the yield reacts to changes in interest rates.
  • The face value is determined by the issuing company. It may be the value at which the firm redeems the shares at some point in the future, but there is no guarantee.

Learn more about date and the interest expense:

brainly.com/question/20038664

#SPJ4

7 0
2 years ago
A country with a relatively low level of real GDP per person is considering adopting two policies to promote economic growth.The
IceJOKER [234]

Answer:

The correct answer is the letter d. Neither the first nor the second.

Explanation:

GDP (gross domestic product) growth is influenced by various factors, consumption, investment, technology, external sector, etc. The policy of restricting foreign trade by placing barriers to trade has reduced GDP as it burdens one of the drivers of economic growth, for example by reducing exports to the rest of the world and thus GDP. Similarly, restricting foreign portfolio investment contributes to non-GDP growth, as foreign investments play an important role in increasing companies' capitalization, helping them to make more investments. Therefore, both economic policies are wrong.

4 0
4 years ago
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