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aleksley [76]
3 years ago
7

You invest in a mutual fund that charges a 3% front-end load, 1% total annual fees, and a 0% back-end load on Class A shares. Th

e same fund charges a 0% front-end load, 1% total annual fees, and a 2% back-end load on Class B shares. What are the total fees in year 1 on a Class B investment of $20,000 if you redeem shares with no growth in value?
Business
1 answer:
Anettt [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Total Fees = $600

Explanation:

A Mutual Fund is a type of investment that pools funds from many individual investors into a singular investment product.

The fund is managed by a Fund Manager. The Fund Manager applies charges to the fund. The charges are income to the Fund Manager.

Front-end load: This is more like a Sales charge applied on the investment amount at the point of buying into the Fund.

Back-end load: This charge is applied on the redemption amount. It is meant to discourage the investor from withdrawing early form the Fund.

Annual fees: This are yearly charge applied on the investment amount.

Calculation:

Front-end load: $0 [Because the rate is 0%]

Back-end load:[2% of 20000] \frac{2}{100} × 20000 = $400

Annual Charge: [1% of 20000] \frac{1}{100} × 20000 = $200

Total Fees: [$400 + $200] =  $600.

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reason for my answer
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A pharmaceutical company in 2016 is researching the market conditions for their newest cold medicine. They pull demographic data
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Secondary data technique is not perfect for marketing research

Explanation:

The secondary method is useful, as it is difficult to perform or conduct a new survey. More, importantly using secondary data technique in marketing research is not an ideal method, because the data may be inaccurate or outdated. The pharmaceutical company was performing marketing research, and usually, the availability of new marketing data is challenging to get from secondary sources.

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A 4% S/A coupon bond with 4 coupons remaining has a BEY of 8.00%. You buy the bond a little over a month before you get the firs
ElenaW [278]

A 4% S/A coupon bond with 4 coupons remaining has a BEY of 8.00%,  is mathematically given as

DP=95.696. Option D is correct

<h3>What is the dirty price of this bond?</h3>

Generally, dirty price is simply defined as It's important to note that a "dirty price" is simply a bond pricing quotation that takes into account both the coupon rate and any interest that has already accumulated on the bond.

In conclusion, Dirty price

DP = (Clean price +  interest Accrued)

Therefore

DP=0.80*(4%*100/2)+2*(1-(1+4%)^(-3.20))/(4%)+100/(1+4%)^(3.20)

DP=95.696

CQ

A4% S/A coupon bond with 4 coupons remaining has a BEY of 8.00%. You buy the bond a little over a month before you get the first coupon. Specifically, the fraction of the 6-month period that has already elapsed is 0.80.

Calculate the dirty price of this bond.

O 81.370

85.216

93.471

o 95.696

Read more about dirty price

brainly.com/question/14316550

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8 0
2 years ago
Today is date 0. In 10 years, you plan to retire and buy a house in Norman, OK. In terms of a time line, you will retire at the
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Answer:

$20,441.67

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the present value of your house is $200,000, its future value = $200,000 x (1 + 5%)¹⁰ = $325,778.93

you can earn a 10% annual interest rate for 10 years, that means that we can use a future value of an annuity factor = 15.937

your annual investment = future value of the house / annuity factor = $325,778.93 / 15.937 = $20,441.67

6 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

Pay

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