What is name of the quadrant in which the point (-4,-3) could be found on the coordination plant

Calculate the approximate probability that at least 2 children have been diagnosed with ASD among the 200 selected children.

mixas84 [53]

Answer:

The approximate probability that at least 2 children have been diagnosed with ASD among the 200 selected children is

0.01 or 1%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of selected children = 200

The probability of no child been diagnosed with ASD = P(None) = 198/200 = 0.99

Therefore, the probability of at least two children been diagnosed with ASD = 1 - 0.99 = 0.01.

This is the same as:

If 2 children have been diagnosed with ASD,

therefore, the approximate probability that at least 2 children have been diagnosed is:

2/200 = 0.01. This value is equal to 1%.

The above are summed up in:

The probability of at least one = 1/200 = 0.05

Therefore, the probability of at least two = 0.05 * 2 = 0.01

b) Generally, to find the probability of at least one event happening, we calculate the probability of none and then subtract that result from 1. That is, P(at least one) = 1 – P(none). For two events happening, the sum of the probability of at least one in two places is deducted from 1 to get the probability of at least two.

4 0

3 years ago

A painter is placing a ladder to reach the third story window, which is 12 feet above the ground and makes an angle of 80 degree

mash [69]

We know that
tan ∅=opposite side angle ∅/adjacent side angle ∅
adjacent side angle ∅=opposite side angle/tan ∅

in this problem
see the attached figure to better understand the problem
angle ∅=80°
opposite side angle ∅=12 ft (AB)
adjacent side angle ∅=? (AC)
adjacent side angle ∅=12/tan 80°------> 2.12 ft

the answer is
2.12 ft

3 0

3 years ago

Joe is considering taking out along with the principal of $15,500 From one of two banks. Bank A charges and interest rate of 6%,

ki77a [65]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We would apply the formula for determining compound interest which is expressed as

A = P(1+r/n)^nt

Where

A = total cost of the loan at the end of t years

r represents the interest rate.

n represents the periodic interval at which it was compounded.

P represents the principal or initial amount taken as loan.

Considering bank A's offer

From the information given,

P = $15500

r = 6% = 6/100 = 0.06

n = 12 because it was compounded 12 times in a year.

t = 8 years

Therefore,

A = 15500(1 + 0.06/12)^12 × 8

A = 15500(1 + 0.005)^96

A = 15500(1.005)^96

A = $25019.2

The interest paid is

25019.2 - 15500 = $9519.2

Considering bank B's offer

From the information given,

P = $15500

r = 6.5% = 6.5/100 = 0.065

n = 12 because it was compounded 12 times in a year.

t = 7 years

Therefore,

A = 15500(1 + 0.065/12)^12 × 7

A = 15500(1 + 0.0054)^84

A = 15500(1.0054)^84

A = $24366

The interest paid is

24366 - 15500 = $8866

The interest that would by paid on bank B's offer is lower than that of bank A and the duration of the loan offer from bank B is shorter than that of bank A.

Therefore,

Bank A gives you more time to pay up the loan and you end up paying more interest

Bank gives you lesser time to pay up the loan and you end up paying lesser interest.

3 0

3 years ago

Write the trigonometric expression sin(sin−1u−tan−1v) as an algebraic expression in u and v. Assume that the variables u and v r

igomit [66]

Answer:

[u – v√(1 – u²)]/√(1 + v²)

Step-by-step explanation:

Let sin^-1(u) = A, therefore sinA = u.

We know that sin(theta) = opposite/hypothenuse

Therefore, sinA = u/1 and u is the opposite side to angle A while 1 is the hypotenuse. Draw an acute triangle placing u opposite to angle A and 1 as the hypotenuse. By Pythagoras theorem the adjacent would be √(1 – u²).

By doing this, it means cosA = adjacent/hypotenuse = √(1 – u²)/1 = √(1 – u²)

Also, let tan^-1(v) = B, therefore tanB = v.

We know that tan(theta) = opposite/adjacent

Therefore, tanB = v/1 and v is the opposite side to angle B while 1 is the adjacent. Draw an acute triangle placing v opposite to angle B and 1 as the adjacent. By Pythagoras theorem the hypothenuse would be √(1 + v²).

Therefore, sinB = opposite/hypotenuse = v/√(1 + v²) and cosB = adjacent/hypotenuse = 1/√(1 + v²)

Now,

sin[sin^–1(u) – tan^–1(v)] =

sin(A – B) =

sinAcosB – sinBcosA =

u[1/√(1 + v²)] – [v/√(1 + v²)][√(1 – u²)] =

[u/√(1 + v²)] – [v√(1 – u²)/√1 + v²)] =

[u – v√(1 – u²)]/√(1 + v²).

8 0

3 years ago

? need in a day or 2 please! Is worth 23 points and brainiest!

Marta_Voda [28]

The answer is 60 feet.

Step by step explanation:

The area of a triangle is Area= base x height divided by 2.

Solve for the base:
Base= 2* area/ height and plug in the data:

Base= 2* 600/20

Final answer:
Base: 60 feet.

3 0

2 years ago

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