Answer: Unalienable rights
An added note of explanation:
You'll see both "unalienable" and "inalienable" used in description of these sorts of rights that cannot be taken away because they are not granted by man but are ever human being's natural possession. In the final version of the <em>Declaration of Independence, </em>the spelling <em>unalienable </em>was used. That was the copy of the document as transcribed by John Adams, which was used for printed copies to be made. Thomas Jefferson's original draft used the spelling <em>inalienable</em>. The two variations of the word were both in use at the time in the 18th century. Either way, the word means something that cannot be made alien to you -- in other words, something that is naturally your possession and cannot be taken away from you.
The Act for the Abolition of the Slave Trade, or as it is known the Slave Trade Act 1807, was meant to end slave trade that got its slaves from Africa (D).
Since this was mainly the only place from which slaves were bought, Africa is directly named in the document as the means to end all slave trade.
However, contrary to these expectations, the act did not abolish slavery in English soil. It was thought that by abolishing slave trade, slavery would naturally end. That didn't happen until 1833 with the Slavery Abolition Act that directly abolished slavery in all English soil.
<span>In this veto message, President Jackson passionately rejects a bill that rechartered the Bank of the United States. He argues that the Bank gives privilege and unfair advantage to a wealthy few at the expense of the public, and he opposes foreign ownership of Bank stock. i belive this could be your answer yes?</span>
Answer:
Texas and Mexico
Explanation:
When the United States annexed Texas in 1845 and made it a new American state, the United States also inherited a long-smoldering border dispute between the breakaway Texans and the government of Mexico.
