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love history [14]
3 years ago
5

Medical Equipment Supply Company and Natural Rehabilitation Center enter into a contract for a lease of a certain number of whee

lchairs. Medical Equipment assures the lessee that it has valid title to the goods. Under the UCC, this type of title warranty arises
Business
1 answer:
nydimaria [60]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a. automatically.

Explanation:

Since in the question it is mentioned that there is a contract between the center and the company for leasing a certain number of wheelchairs. Also, it gives assurance with respect to the good title to be valid

And under the UCC, this title warranty arises automatically as in this case the automatization is done in most of the cases

Hene, the correct option is a.

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Shaun Barringer has started on his first job. He plans to start saving for retirement. He will invest 4,133 at the end of each y
ser-zykov [4K]

Answer:

The correct answer would be, $3,594,524

5 0
3 years ago
Van Den Borsh Corp. has annual sales of $68,735,000, an average inventory level of $15,012,000, and average accounts receivable
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

The answer is d. -32 days.

Explanation:

<u>*The before change cash conversion cycle</u> = Days of inventory outstanding + Days of receivables outstanding - Days of payable outstanding.

in which:

Days of inventory outstanding = Average inventory / Cost of good sold x 365 = ( 15,012,000 / ( 68,735,000 x 0.85) ) x 365 = 94 days

Days of receivables outstanding = Average Receivables / Revenue x 365 = ( 10,008,000 / 68,735,000 x 365 = 53 days

Days of payable = 30 days

=> Before change cash conversion cycle = 117 days.

* <u>The after-change cash conversion cycle</u> is calculated with the same formula, however with estimated changes be applied in the formula as followed:

Days of inventory outstanding = Average inventory / Cost of good sold x 365 = ( (15,012,000 - 1,946,000) / ( 68,735,000 x 0.85) ) x 365 = 82 days

Days of receivables outstanding = Average Receivables / Revenue x 365 = ( (10,008,000 - 1,946,000) / 68,735,000 x 365 = 43 days

Days of payable = 40 days

=> After-change cash conversion cycle = 82 + 43 - 40 = 85 days

<u>=> Net change is 85 - 117 = -32 days</u>

6 0
3 years ago
Petromax Enterprises uses a continuous review inventory control system for one of its SKUs. The following information is availab
SVETLANKA909090 [29]

Answer:

  • Economic order quantity= 1406 units
  • Safety Stock= 630 units
  • Reorder Point= 14130 units

Explanation:

Given Demand D= 78,000units/year

Ordering cost S = $38.00/order

Holding cost H = $3.00unit/year

Average lead time = 9 weeks

Standard deviation of weekly demand = 120 units

a) Economic order quantity:

EOQ = \sqrt{(2*D*S)/H}

EOQ = \sqrt{(2*78000*38)/3}

1405.7 = <u>1406 Units</u>

b)<u> Safety Stock:</u>

Weekly demand = 78000/52 =1500 units

Standard deviation of weekly demand = 120 units

Lead time is 9 weeks

Using the normsinv() in excel the Z value for the desired 96% service level is 1.75

Safety stock = z\sigma _{d}\sqrt{L}

= 1.75*120*\sqrt{9}

= 630 units

Reorder point = average lead time demand + safety stock

= lead time * weekly demand + saftey stock

  = 9*1500 + 630

  = 13500 + 630

Reorder point = 14130

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why do you think pmi created a separate knowledge area for stakeholder management?
DaniilM [7]
PMI stands for the project management institute and organization which in non-profit for the project management in the United States.
And i think Project management institute created separate knowledge area for stakeholder management to keep the information of stakeholder control within the task or project.
3 0
3 years ago
Western Inc. purchases a machine for $70,000. This machine qualifies as a five-year recovery asset under MACRS with the fixed de
Ne4ueva [31]

Western Inc. purchases a machine for $70,000. This machine qualifies as a five-year recovery asset under MACRS with the fixed depreciation percentages- <u>the cash flow from disposal is $46720</u>

Explanation:

Given that  the four-year sale is at $50,000.

we know that the book value of the machine must be established in order to determine if a gain or loss has been incurred at disposal.

The depreciation schedule for the $70,000 machine is: given as

Year 1: $70,000 &times; 0.2000 = $14,000

Year 2: $70,000 &times; 0.3200 = $22,400

<u>Accumulated Depreciation </u>= $14,000 + $22,400 = $36,400

<u>Book Value of machine </u>= $70,000 - $36,400 = $33,600

<u>Gain on disposal is</u> $50,000 - $33,600 = $16,400

Tax on Gain = Gain on disposal &times; Tax rate = $16,400 &

times; 0.20 = 20% of $16,400=20/100*16400=3,280

<u>After-Tax Cash Flow at disposal</u> = $50,000 - $3,280 = $46,720

8 0
3 years ago
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