The reasons for PSO to switch from DB to DC Scheme are:
- It has gold standard for pensions.
- They are more secure.
- More generous than DC pensions and pay an income that increases along with inflation.
<h3>What are the reasons for a shift?</h3>
The movement from defined benefit (DB) to defined contribution (DC) pension plans is known to be one that has made workers to decide or make choices that may affect their financial resources in terms of retirement.
Therefore, DC Scheme is more of a benefit to the employees that the company as it tends to lower an employee's taxable income.
Learn more about pensions from
brainly.com/question/10318001
#SPJ1
Answer:
The statement is true, as it is an example of foreign direct investment.
Explanation:
Foreign direct investment is the direct investment by individuals or legal persons in production or business operations abroad. In this context, investments include both acquisition of foreign operations and expansion of own operations.
Foreign direct investment does not include the purchase of either shares or bonds per se. More specifically, the IMF has restricted direct investment on acquisitions to cases where the foreign investor owns 10% or more of the shares that give administrative rights in the business. Investment funds that can be classified as foreign direct investments therefore include equity deposits, reinvestments of dividends from the business, as well as the allocation of short-term and long-term loans between parent companies and subsidiaries.
To be able to fix the thing that are broken and to communicate with each other
Answer:
mainly because of the countries negative trade balance, but also because it is strictly regulated by the central bank which is the National bank of Ethiopia.
Answer:
Answer:
a) Monthly payment = $65.95
b) Remaining balance on her loan after making 12th payment = 11,000 - (65.95 x 12) = $10208.6
c) Interest paid in month 13 = 10208.6 * 0.5% = $51.043
Principal paid in month 13 = $65.95 - 51.043 = $14.907
Explanation:
Using financial calculator:
PV = 11,000
n = 30 years = 360 months
i/r = 6%/year = 0.5% / month
FV = 0
PMT = ? (Monthly payment = ?)
a) Monthly payment = $65.95
b) Remaining balance on her loan after making 12th payment = 11,000 - (65.95 x 12) = $10208.6
c) Interest paid in month 13 = 10208.6 * 0.5% = $51.043
Principal paid in month 13 = $65.95 - 51.043 = $14.907
Explanation:
