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Nonamiya [84]
3 years ago
9

You are analyzing a project with an initial cost of £130,000. The project is expected to return £20,000 the first year, £50,000

the second year, and £90,000 the third and final year. There is no salvage value. The current spot rate is £.8211. The nominal risk-free return is 5.0 percent in the U.K. and 6.5 percent in the U.S. The return relevant to the project is 15 percent in the U.S. Assume that uncovered interest rate parity exists. What is the net present value of this project in U.S. dollars?
Business
1 answer:
Mashutka [201]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: Net Present Value = -$19,062

Explanation:

First, we'll compute the PV for the respective years

Present Value (Year-1)

= 0.6211 \times [1 + (0.055 - 0.06)]^{1}

=0.6179945

Present Value (Year-2)

= 0.6211 \times [1 + (0.055 - 0.06)]^{2}

=0.614904528

Present Value (Year-3)

= 0.6211 \times [1 + (0.055 - 0.06)]^{3}

=0.611830005

Now, we'll compute the Cash Flow for the respective years

Cash Flow (Initial)

= -130,000\times (\frac{1}{0.6211} )

= -$209,306.07

Cash Flow (Year-1)

=20,000\times (\frac{1}{0.61799} )

=$32,362.75

Cash Flow (Year-2)

=50,000\times (\frac{1}{0.61490} )

=$81,313.44

Cash Flow (Year-3)

= 90,000\times (\frac{1}{0.611830} )

=$147,099.68

Net Present Value:

= -$209,306.07 + ($32,362.75/1.141)+ ($81,313.44/1.142) +($147,099.68/1.143)

= -$209,306.07 +$28,388.38 + $62,568.05 + $99,288.10

= -$19,062

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EZ-Tax is a tax accounting practice with partners and staff members. Each billable hour of partner time has a $800 budgeted pric
Harlamova29_29 [7]

Answer:

EZ-Tax

                                                      Partner                 Staff             Total

a. Sales price variance             $104,000            ($110,000)      ($6,000) U

b. Activity variance                   $160,000           $420,000     $580,000 F

c. Mix variance                           $85,000           $180,000     $265,000 F

d. Quantity variance                $189,000             $70,000     $259,000 F

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

                                                      Partner                 Staff

Budgeted billable rate per hour   $800                    $210    

Budgeted variable cost per hour    375                      120

Budgeted billable hours              5,000                20,000

Budgeted revenue             $4,000,000        $4,200,000

Budgeted variable cost         1,875,000          2,400,000

Actual revenue                  $4,264,000         $4,510,000

Actual billable hours                   5,200                22,000

Actual billable rate per hour       $820                   $205

Budgeted billable rate per hour $800                    $210

Variance in price                           $20                       ($5)

Sales price variance            $104,000            ($110,000)      ($6,000)

Sales price variance = (Standard price - Actual price) * Actual billable hours

= ($800 - $820) * 5,200 + ($210 - $205) * 22,000

= $20 * 5,200 + ($5) * 22,000

= $104,000 - 110,000

= $6,000 U

Activity variance = (Actual billable hours - Standard billable hours) * Standard rate

= (5,200 - 5,000) * $800 + (22,000 - 20,000) * $210

= (200 * $800) + (2,000 * 210)

= $160,000 + 420,000

= $580,000 F

                                                  Partner                 Staff        Total

Budgeted revenue             $4,000,000        $4,200,000   $8,200,000

Budgeted variable cost         1,875,000          2,400,000      4,275,000

Budgeted contribution       $2,125,000         $1,800,000   $3,925,000

Actual revenue                  $4,264,000         $4,510,000   $8,774,000

Actual variable cost              1,950,000          2,640,000    4,590,000

Actual contribution             $2,314,000         $1,870,000   $4,184,000

Quantity variance                 $189,000              $70,000     $259,000

Quantity variance = Budgeted contribution - Actual contribution

= $3,925,000 - $4,184,000

= $259,000 F

Mix Variance:

Standard contribution margin  $425                  $90

Volume variance                         200                2,000

Mix variance =                     $85,000           $180,000

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Only one commercial bank in the banking system has an excess reserve, and its excess reserve is $400,000. This bank makes a new
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Answer:

money supply will increase by 2,400,000

Explanation:

the expansion f the money supply will be:

the money multiplier will be:

1/reserve ratio = 1/0.125 = 8

300,000 x 8 = 2,400,000

The reasoning for the multiplier effect is the following:

once the money is received, it will be used, and the person who receive the cash will deposit their proceeds.

This amount, can generate a new loan for, the remainder after subtracting the required reserve.

300,000 - 12.5% = 262,500

And this, once used will also end in a deposit. This opens the posibility for another loan, after reducing the reserve

262,500 - 12.5% = 229,687.5‬

This can be reapeat again and again and the limit for this is the formula state above:

multiplier effect = 1/reserve ratio

5 0
3 years ago
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nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

the net cash flow from operating activities for the year 1 is $1,100

Explanation:

The computation of the net cash flow from operating activities is shown below:

= Cash collection from account receivable - cash paid for the operating expenses

= $3,500 - $2,400

= $1,100

Hence, the net cash flow from operating activities for the year 1 is $1,100

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come

And, the same is to be considered

4 0
2 years ago
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Answer:

B) overpriced

Explanation:

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8 0
2 years ago
On January 8, an applicant filled out an application for a life insurance policy but did not include the initial premium. The in
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Answer: January 26

Explanation:

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Based on the information in the question, the coverage become effective on January 26 which was the day the policy was delivered and the first premium was collected.

3 0
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