Answer:
0.03333
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.
Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3
The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.
Machine I II III total
Faulty 0.10 0.20 0.05
Prob 0.3333 0.3333 0.3334 1
Faulty*prob 0.03333 0.06666 0.16665 0.26664
Thus probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine
= 0.03333
Answer:20+10
Step-by-step explanation:It is 20 plus 10 because 6 times 5 is 30 and so is 20 plus 10.
Answer:
6% chance
Step-by-step explanation:
12+19+14+15 = 60 60 divided by 100 = 0.6 = 6%
Answer:
I think it's a or b the picture is fuzzy
