Answer:
give the other peeson brainliest cuz y not
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, so what we can take as a given is that arcDE/2= ∠CDE=2x+20 since the arc corresponding to the angle is 2*the angle. To solve for arcDE, we multiply both sides by 2 to get 2(2x+20)=4x+40=arcDE. Since the arcs in a circle add up to 360 degrees and we only have -20+30x and arcDE, we have -20+40+4x+30x=360 using the associative property. Simplifying, we get 20+34x=340. Subtracting 20 from both sides, we get 340=34x. Next, we can divide both sides by 34 to get 10=x.
By definition a function can have only one value of y for any given value of x.
Since B. contains both (-1,2) and (-1,0), y has two values for the same value of x and thus B. cannot be a function...
The odds in favor are 3:3 which reduces to 1:1
There are 3 ways to get what we want, which is 4, 5 or 2. There are 3 ways to get what we don't want (1,3,or 6). So we list those two values as a ratio like so 3:3, which reduces to 1:1 after you divide both parts by 3.
Here's another example. If we wanted to know the odds in favor of rolling a 5 or 6, then the answer would be 2:4 which reduces to 1:2. This is because there are 2 ways to get what we want (rolling a 5 or 6) and 4 ways to get what we don't want (rolling either 1,2,3, or 4). The number of events we favor is listed first when it comes to "odds in favor" problems.
