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Darya [45]
3 years ago
9

How to do a balance sheet?

Business
1 answer:
inna [77]3 years ago
3 0
Balance sheet is a statement of all your assets, liabilities, and your capital.

List down all your assets, liabilities, and capital or equity.

Total Assets = Total Liabilities + Owner's Equity

Total Assets include: land, buildings, inventory, cash, account receivables, etc.

Total Liabilities include: accounts payable, notes payable, allowance for depreciation, etc.

Owner's equity: capital/stocks, withdrawal, additional capital, etc.
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Red Co. reported cash paid for interest of $55,000 in its statement of cash flows for the current year. Red did not capitalize a
nordsb [41]

Answer:

$63,500

Explanation:

Interest expense paid in cash           $55000  

Less: Adjusted for accrued interest  $13,000

payable

Add: prepaid interest adjusted         <u>$21,500</u>

Interest expense in its current year  <u>$63,500</u>

statement of income

3 0
3 years ago
A stock has a beta of 1.28, the expected return on the market is 12%, and the risk-free rate is 4.5%. Using the CAPM, what is th
MatroZZZ [7]

Answer:

14.10%

Explanation:

The calculation of expected return on this stock is shown below:-

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

= 4.5% + 1.28 × (12% - 4.5%)

= 4.5% + 1.28 × 7.5%

= 4.5% + 9.6%

= 14.10%

The Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) is also called as the market risk premium

hence, the expected rate of return is 14.10%

8 0
3 years ago
hudson corporation will pay a dividend of $2.80 per share next year. the company pledges to increase its dividend by 7.40 percen
trapecia [35]

Option d. $35.00 is the share price that one should pay for the stock today to get the required return

The share price, or the price you will pay for the company's stock right now, can be calculated using the necessary rate of return calculation, the formula is as follows:

RRR=(EDP/SP)+DGW

where;

RRR=required rate of return

EDP=expected dividend payment from share

SP=share price

DGW=dividend growth rate

In our case:

RRR=15.40%=15.4/100=0.154

EDP=$2.80

SP=unknown

DGW=7.40%=7.40/100=0.074

Substituting the values in the formula we get the following:

0.154=(2.80/SP)+0.074

(0.154-0.074)=(2.80/SP)

0.08=2.80/SP

SP=2.80/0.08

So, the share price of the stock=$35

Learn more about dividends:

brainly.com/question/28044310

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
"A customer has purchased 1,000 shares of ABC stock at $44 per share, paying a commission of $1.00 per share for the transaction
ikadub [295]

Answer:

1,200 shares held at a cost basis of $37.50

Explanation:

Since there are 1,000 shares are purchased

and the stock dividend is 20%

So the number of shares after the dividend is  

= 1,000 × (1 + dividend percentage)

= 1,000 × (1 + 0.20)

= 1,000 × 1.20

= 1.200

And, the price per share is

= $44 + $1

= $45

So, the cost basis would be

= $45 ÷ 1.20

= $37.50

hence, the tax status of the investment is 1,200 shares held for cost at $37.50 basis

5 0
3 years ago
The demand for one of X Company’s products has declined in recent years. The product is manufactured using designated equipment
djverab [1.8K]

Answer:

$230,000

Revised Question:

The demand for one of X Company's products has declined in recent years. The product is manufactured using designated equipment that originally cost $1,300,000 and has a carrying value of $720,000. As of the current date, December 31, 2012, it is expected that only an additional 400,000 units are likely to be sold over the remaining life of the equipment. Each unit sells for $3 and has a manufacturing cost of $1.50. Relevant information as of December 31, 2018:

The undiscounted future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment is expected to be $600,000.

The present value of the future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment, calculated at the company's cost of capital, is $475,000.

The equipment has a fair value of $490,000 on the date of evaluation.

How much of an impairment loss will X Company recognize in 2018?

Explanation:

IAS 36 Impairment of Assets states that company's or entity's assets can not be carried at more than their Recoverable Amount

<em>Recoverable Amount</em> equals to higher of Fair Value less cost of disposal and Value in Use

<em>Value in Use</em> is net present value (NPV) of future cashflows generated by an asset.

Lets calculate the Recoverable amount of the equipment of Company X:

Fair Value less Cost of disposal = $490,000 - 0 = $490,000

Value in Use = discounted future cashflows from equipment =  $475,000

<em>So Recoverable Amount is higher of Fair Value less cost of disposal and Value in Use i.e $490,000</em>

<h3>Impairment Loss = Carrying Value - Recoverable Amount </h3><h3>                              = $720,000 - $490,000</h3><h3>                              = $230,000</h3>
5 0
3 years ago
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