Answer: See Explanation
Explanation:
You didn't give the methods to use but let me use 2 main methods.
First, let's use the Straight line Depreciation. This will be:
= ($71000 + $3000 + $2000 - $3000) / 5
= $73000/5
= $14600
Year 1 Depreciation = $14600
Year 2 depreciation = $14600
Secondly, let's use the double declining method of Depreciation will be:
= 1/5 × 2
= 0.2 × 2
= 0.4
= 40%
Year 1 depreciation will be:
= 76000 × 40%
= 76000 × 0.4
= $30400
Year 2 Depreciation will be:
= ($76000 - $30400) × 40%
= $45600 × 40/100
= $45600 × 0.4
= $18240
Answer:
Bad debt expense A/c Dr $4,900
To Allowance for doubtful debts $4,900
(Being bad debt expense is recorded)
Explanation:
The journal entry is shown below;
Bad debt expense A/c Dr $4,900
To Allowance for doubtful debts $4,900
(Being bad debt expense is recorded)
The computation of the bad debt expense is shown below:
= Net Credit sales × estimated percentage given - credit balance of allowance for doubtful debts
= $920,000 × 0.6% - $620
= $5,520 - $620
= $4,900
The statement is false. It would be an advantage to both the client and the organization. This would mean if the client needs a markdown from the provider they would need to pay the receipt inside 10 days to get the rebate, and this would then enable the organization to get their cash speedier.
