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Mariulka [41]
3 years ago
11

Why did British officials partition India into India and Pakistan?

History
1 answer:
iren2701 [21]3 years ago
3 0
The British officals partition India into India and Pakistan because the division of India was the only way to ensure a safe and secure region. 
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Although the many advocacy groups of the 1960s led different types of protests, most
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Answer:

It mostly used nonviolent resistance effectively

Explanation:

The king had employed a strategy that was not violent and obeyed the opposition in resisting the boycott. The writings of David in Disobedience impressed the king. However, the king will not believe the idea of Christians, so he applied social action and started reading the teachings of Gandhi. He said that the reason for raising the weapon was to fight nonviolently .

The movement in America was the main counterculture element that was used to ensure there was no violence and everybody had equal rights as stated in the laws of the constitution

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Before adopting the Articles of Confederation, the Continental Congress
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Should the US become a republic?

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2 years ago
What cardinal rule of slaveholding does Master Thomas break, proving his meanness in Chapter 9 of the Narrative of the Life of F
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<u>Answer:</u>

The correct answer is: Master Thomas didn’t give slaves enough food.

<u>Explanation:</u>

In Chapter 9 of the Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass, Frederick’s newest Master, Master Thomas breaks a cardinal rule of slaveholding by not giving enough food to the slaves.

Master Thomas is characterized by meanness since he did not provide the slaves with enough food and they had to beg for it and steal it from the neighbors.

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3 years ago
Which of the following best describes Daniel Webster’s views? A.he disagreed with slavery but supported compromise B.he declared
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"A.he disagreed with slavery but supported compromise " is the correct answer. Webster objected to slavery on moral grounds and thought that it should not be extended.
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Which of the following BEST explains the difference between civilian deaths in WW I and WW II?
nevsk [136]

The reason why there is such a difference between civilian deaths in WWI and WWII was that civilians were deliberately targeted in WWII.

<h3>Why were there more civilian deaths in WWII?</h3>

In WWII, the combatants targeted civilians directly in some cases as opposed to WWI where civilian deaths were limited.

For instance, WWII saw the Nazis targeting specific populations such as Jews. The allies also targeted civilian areas during their bombing raids in order to pressure the Nazis to surrender.

Find out more on civilian deaths in WWII at brainly.com/question/10577518.

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