Answer:
19.9%
Step-by-step explanation:
39.8/200 = 0.199 (move decimal two times)
19.9%
or you can just see what number get 200 to 100, which is by dividing by 2. What you do to the bottom you do to the top so 39.8/200 (divide both sides by 2) = 19.9/100
which is 19.9%.
<u><em>Ace Carlos</em></u>
-- The two sides of a right <u>angle</u> intersect and make the angle.
So do the sides of any other angle. So they can't be parallel.
-- No two sides of a right <u>triangle</u> ... or any other triangle ...can be parallel.
In this question the main part is to convert the kilometer to miles and
then writing the answer to the nearest tenth of a mile. the information
given in the question is that the race is for a distance of 5
kilometers.
Now we already know
1 km = 0.6214 mile
Then
5 km = ( 0.6214 * 5) miles
= 3.107 miles
= 3.11 miles
So
the actual distance when converted to miles will be 3.11 miles. I hope
this is the answer you were looking for. This is the simplest way for
doing such problems and in future you can follow this method to find the
answers without the need of any help.
Answer:
96.48
52.472
Step-by-step explanation:
lol
Answer:
37.35 in
Step-by-step explanation:
The volume of a cone is given by the formula ...
V = (π/3)r²h
where r is the radius of the base and h is the height. We want to find the diameter of the base, so we can rewrite this in terms of diameter and solve for d. Please note that the height is given in millimeters, not inches, so a conversion is necessary.
V = (π/3)(d/2)²h
12V/(πh) = d²
d = 2√(3V/(πh)) = 2√(3(2.2×10^4 in^3)/(π·1530 mm/(25.4 mm/in))
= 2√(1.6764×10^6/(π·1.53×10^3) in^2)
d ≈ 37.35 in
The base diameter of the cone is about 37.35 inches.
