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Agata [3.3K]
3 years ago
12

Sarah's Machinery Company is deciding to dump its current technology A for a new technology B with smaller fixed costs but bigge

r MCs. The current technology has fixed costs of $500 and MCs of $50 whereas the new technology has fixed costs of $250 and marginal costs of $100. At what quantity is Sarah's Machinery Company indifferent between two technologies?
Business
1 answer:
Montano1993 [528]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The quantity that Sarah's Machinery Company is indifferent between two technologies is 5.

Explanation:

We are looking for the quantity that Sarah's Machinery Company is  indifferent between two technologies,  so we have to find the quantity that the total cost with technology A is the same to the total cost with technology B

Total cost  technology A=500+50x

Total cost  technology B=250+100x

500+50x=250+100x

500-250=100x-50x

250=50x

x=250/50=5

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You have 21 product displays. Six have 5 shelves and 15 have 4 shelves. It is store policy to dedicate at least one full shelf t
prohojiy [21]

Answer:

90

Explanation:

In 5 shelves put 6 in each. In 4 shelves put 15 in each. Add both numbers and get your answer

3 0
2 years ago
Greengage, Inc., a successful nursery, is considering several expansion projects. All of the alternatives promise to produce an
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

A. Project A

B. Project A has lowest Standard Deviation

C. Project D

Explanation:

A.

The higher the range, the more risky the project is. Based on the table, project A has the smallest range, and therefore is the least risky based on range.

B.

The standard deviation is not scale-free, i.e. it is not adjusted for the level of returns. Hence, a project that has the same distribution of returns, but a higher average return, will have a higher standard deviation. But the project is not any more risky. Hence, the standard deviation might not be an appropriate measure of risk.

C.

The Coefficient of Variation (CV) is calculated as follows:

CV = Standard deviation / expected return

Applying this formula, the coefficient of variation for each project is:

Project A: 2.9% / 12.0% = 0.242

Project B: 3.2% / 12.5% = 0.256

Project C: 3.5% / 13.0% = 0.269

Project D: 3.0% / 12.8% = 0.23 4

Based on the coefficient of variation, project D has the lowest coefficient. It means that the project has the lowest risk per unit of return generated, and thus is the best project and should be chosen.

4 0
3 years ago
A purely domestic firm that sources and sells only domestically, Multiple Choice should never hedge since this could actually in
Oksana_A [137]

Answer:

faces exchange rate risk to the extent that it has international competitors in the domestic market.

Explanation:

Exchange rate risk is defined as the risk that exists when a company engaged in transactions that are denominated in a foreign currency rather than the domestic currency.

So if a purely domestic firm that sources and sells only domestically has international competitors in its local market, and the exchange rate is favouring the competitors there will be a risk for them.

For example if international competitors can source raw materials cheaper because of the exchange rate of a foreign country, it will be a disadvantage to local firms that cannot reduce their prices.

5 0
3 years ago
Once a trial balance has been prepared, the next step of the accounting cycle involves: a. Classifying the transactions into log
Mice21 [21]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": Preparing financial statements such as the balance sheet, income statement, and statement of cash flows.

Explanation:

A trial balance is a worksheet listing the debit and credit balances of all the ledger accounts for an entity. Under accounting theory, the total of all the debits must equal the total of all the credits. Since the trial balance is a list of all the accounts it serves as an accuracy check before the company prepares the financial statements including the <em>Balance sheet, Income </em>and <em>Cash Flows Statements</em>.

3 0
2 years ago
Assume Zap industries reported the following adjusted account balances at year-end. 2019 2018 Accounts Receivable $ 1,690,200 $
Scrat [10]

Answer:

amount of Bad Debt Expense for 2019 = $92,000

Explanation:

A bad debt expense is a uncollectible receivable amount incurred on a credit sale to a customer, who is no longer able to pay the debt, due to bankruptcy or other financial problems. Companies make provision for these kind of credit losses in the allowance for doubtful accounts, and hence records the amount used from the allowance for doubtful accounts as the bad debt expense.

In our example, the allowance for doubtful account for 2019 is $92,000, hence since it was used to settle part of the credit losses, this becomes the bad debt expense.

3 0
3 years ago
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