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sineoko [7]
3 years ago
12

Indicate the proper accounting treatment for a change in the rate used to compute warranty costs.

Business
1 answer:
Lana71 [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a. Accounted for prospectively

Explanation:

Warranty cost is an expense i.e. to be incurred for the repair or replacement of the goods comes under the warranty given by the company.

Here if there is a change in the rate i.e. used for determining the warranty cost so it would be accounted in prospectively manner i.e. it would be changed in the current period and also the amount should be estimated or predicted

Hence, the correct option is a.

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The margin of safety is the amount that sales can drop before the company incurs a loss.
torisob [31]

a.true

Because with said the the margin of safety is the amount that sales can drop before the company incurs a loss.

read the question aloud and it will make sense.

4 0
2 years ago
Crockin Corporation is considering a machine that will save $9,000 a year in cash operating costs each year for the next six yea
Roman55 [17]

Answer:

IRR = 16.5%

Explanation:

T<em>he IRR is the discount rate that equates the present value of cash inflows to that of cash outflows. At the IRR, the Net Present Value (NPV) of a project is equal to zero  </em>

<em>If the IRR greater than the required rate of return , we accept the project for implementation  </em>

<em>If the IRR is less than that the required rate , we reject the project for implementation  </em>

IRR = a% + ( NPVa/(NPVa + NPVb)× (b-a)%

NPV = PV of annual savings - initial cost

PV of annual savings = A× (1- (1+r)^(-n) )/r

A- annual savings in operating cost , r- rate of return, n- number of years

NPVa  at 10% discount rate

PV of cash inflow = (9,000×  1-1.1^-6)/0.1 =   39,197.35  

NPV =    65,328.91 - 33,165 =  6,032.35  

NPVb at 20% discount rate

PV of cash inflow = (9,000×  1-1.2^-6)/0.2=  (3,235.41)

NPV = 29,929.59  -33,165 = (3,235.41)

IRR = a% + ( NPVa/(NPVa + NPVb)× (b-a)%

IRR = 10% + ( (6,032.35/(6,032.35 +3,235.41) )× (20-10)%= 16.51%

IRR = 16.5%

8 0
3 years ago
Inventory Valuation under Variable Costing Lane Company produced 50,000 units during its first year of operations and sold 47,30
otez555 [7]

Answer:

1. $5.62

2. $15,174

Explanation:

1. The computation of the cost of one unit of product under variable costing is shown below:-

Total product cost = Direct material + Direct labor + Variable overhead

= $123,000 + $93,000 + $65,000

= $281,000

Unit product cost = Total product cost ÷ Produced units

= $281,000 ÷ $50,000

= $5.62

2. The computation of cost of ending inventory under variable costing is shown below:-

Unsold at end = Unit produced - Unit sold

= 50,000 - 47,300

= 2,700

Cost of ending inventory = Number of units sold × Unit product cost

= $5.62 × 2,700

= $15,174

3 0
3 years ago
You find the following corporate bond quotes. To calculate the number of years until maturity, assume that it is currently Janua
Oduvanchick [21]

Answer:

the yield to maturity for the bond issued by Xenon, Inc = 6.92%

Explanation:

<em>IMPORTANT NOTE: The data of the calculation was obtained from an online book.</em>

<em />

Yield to Maturity [YTM] of the Bond

Yield to Maturity [YTM] = Coupon Amount + [(Par Value – Bond Price) / Maturity Years] / [(Par Value + Bond Price)/2]

Par Value = $2,000

Coupon Amount = $126 [$2,000 x 6.30%]

Bond Price = $1,885.82 [$2,000 x 94.291%]

Maturity Years = 15 Years [Jan 15,2016 to Jan 15,2031]

Therefore, Yield to Maturity [YTM] = Coupon Amount + [(Par Value – Bond Price) / Maturity Years] / [(Par Value + Bond Price)/2]

= [$126 + {($2,000 – $1,885.82) / 15 Years)] / [($2,000 + $1,885.82) / 2}]

= [($126 + $7.61) / $ 1,942.91]

= 0.0692

= 6.92%

<h2> </h2><h2>Therefore, the yield to maturity for the bond issued by Xenon, Inc = 6.92%</h2>
8 0
2 years ago
A maker of computers has decided to steeply discount all of its HyperDrive models and is considering licensing an overseas manuf
zhannawk [14.2K]

growth of manufacturing

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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