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levacccp [35]
3 years ago
7

Nadine and Calvin are simplifying the expression (StartFraction r Superscript negative 5 Baseline s Superscript negative 3 Basel

ine Over r Superscript 8 Baseline s Superscript negative 2 Baseline EndFraction) Superscript negative 4. Nadine claims the first step to simplify the expression is to raise the numerator and denominator to the power of 4 to get StartFraction r Superscript negative 20 Baseline s Superscript negative 12 Baseline Over r Superscript 32 Baseline s Superscript 8 Baseline EndFraction. Calvin claims the first step to simplify the expression is to apply the quotient of powers to get (r Superscript negative 13 Baseline s Superscript negative 1 Baseline) Superscript negative 4. Who is correct and why?
Mathematics
2 answers:
motikmotik3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct answer is D or

Calvin is correct because he correctly applied the quotient of powers rule.

Step-by-step explanation:

I just took the quiz

Nat2105 [25]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Calvin's first step is to simplify the expression is to apply the quotient of powers to get (r Superscript negative 13 Baseline s Superscript negative 1 Baseline) Superscript negative 4 is the correct step

That is (\frac{r^{-5}s^{-3}}{r^8s^{-2}})^{-4}=(r^{-13}s^{-1})^{-4} Calvin's step is the correct step.Because this is the correct way to do simplify the rational expression. And also because Nadine made a blender mistake in her operations in step

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that Nadine and Calvin are simplifying the expression (StartFraction r Superscript negative 5 Baseline s Superscript negative 3 Baseline Over r Superscript 8 Baseline s Superscript negative 2 Baseline EndFraction) Superscript negative 4

Their expression can be written as below

(\frac{r^{-5}s^{-3}}{r^8s^{-2}})^{-4}

Nadine's first step is to simplify the expression is to raise the numerator and denominator to the power of 4 to get StartFraction r Superscript negative 20 Baseline s Superscript negative 12 Baseline Over r Superscript 32 Baseline s Superscript 8 Baseline EndFraction

That is \frac{r^{20}s^{12}}{r^{-32}s^8}

Calvin's first step is to simplify the expression is to apply the quotient of powers to get (r Superscript negative 13 Baseline s Superscript negative 1 Baseline) Superscript negative 4

That is r^{-13}s^{-1}

Now simplify the given expression to check whose step is correct:

(\frac{r^{-5}s^{-3}}{r^8s^{-2}})^{-4}

=(r^{-5}s^{-3}r^{-8}s^{2})^{-4} ( using the property \frac{1}{a^m}=a^{-m} )

=(r^{-5-8}s^{-3+2})^{-4}

=(r^{-13}s^{-1})^{-4}

Therefore (\frac{r^{-5}s^{-3}}{r^8s^{-2}})^{-4}=(r^{-13}s^{-1})^{-4}

Therefore Calvin's first step is to simplify the expression is to apply the quotient of powers to get (r Superscript negative 13 Baseline s Superscript negative 1 Baseline) Superscript negative 4 is the correct step.

That is (\frac{r^{-5}s^{-3}}{r^8s^{-2}})^{-4}=(r^{-13}s^{-1})^{-4} Calvin's step is the correct step .Because this is the correct way to do simplify the rational expression.And also because Nadine made a blender mistake in her operations in step

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Please help me ill mark you as brainiset
Artyom0805 [142]

Answer: -$560

Step-by-step explanation: Ahem, So basically u divide -$5040 by 9 months and then you get -$560

Plz mark me brainliest it would mean so much! :)

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose that MNO is isosceles with base NM. Suppose also that =m∠N+4x7° and =m∠M+2x29°. Find the degree measure of each angle in
chubhunter [2.5K]

Answer:

m∠N = 51°

m∠M = 31°

m∠O = 98°

Step-by-step explanation:

It is given that ΔMNO is an isosceles triangle with base NM.

m∠N = (4x + 7)° and m∠M = (2x + 29)°

By the property of an isosceles triangle,

Two legs of an isosceles triangle are equal in measure.

ON ≅ OM

And angles opposite to these equal sides measure the same.

m∠N = m∠M

(4x + 7) = (2x + 29)

4x - 2x = 29 - 7

2x = 22

x = 11

m∠N = (4x + 7)° = 51°

m∠M = (2x + 9)° = 31°

m∠O = 180° - (m∠N + m∠M)

         = 180° - (51° + 31°)

         = 180° - 82°

         = 98°

8 0
3 years ago
Find the reference angle of -320 degrees
CaHeK987 [17]

Answer:

  40°

Step-by-step explanation:

The reference angle is the positive difference between an angle and the nearest multiple of 180°.

Here, the nearest multiple of 180° is -360°. The difference of interest is ...

  |-320° -(-360°)| = 40°

The reference angle is 40°.

3 0
3 years ago
According to the Mortgage Bankers Association, 8% of U.S. mortgages were delinquent in 2011. A delinquent mortgage is one that h
shepuryov [24]

Answer:

The probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is 0.357.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that according to the Mortgage Bankers Association, 8% of U.S. mortgages were delinquent in 2011. A delinquent mortgage is one that has missed at least one payment but has not yet gone to foreclosure.

A random sample of eight mortgages was selected.

The above situation can be represented through Binomial distribution;

P(X=r) = \binom{n}{r}p^{r} (1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,.....

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 8 mortgages

            r = number of success = exactly one

           p = probability of success which in our question is % of U.S.

                  mortgages those were delinquent in 2011, i.e; 8%

<em>LET X = Number of U.S. mortgages those were delinquent in 2011</em>

So, it means X ~ Binom(n=8, p=0.08)

Now, Probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is given by = P(X = 1)

                 P(X = 1)  = \binom{8}{1}\times 0.08^{1} \times (1-0.08)^{8-1}

                               = 8 \times 0.08 \times 0.92^{7}

                               = 0.357

<u><em>Hence, the probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is 0.357.</em></u>

4 0
3 years ago
Each day, Robin commutes to work by bike with probability 0.4 and by walking with probability 0.6. When biking to work injuries
kvasek [131]

Answer:

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}&#10;

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

Each day:

Bikes to work with probability 0.4.

If he bikes to work, 0.1 injuries per year.

Walks to work with probability 0.6.

If he walks to work, 0.02 injuries per year.

20 years.

So

\mu = 20*(0.4*0.1 + 0.6*0.02) = 1.04

Either he suffers no injuries, or he suffer at least one injury. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1). Then

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}&#10;

P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.04}*1.04^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.3535&#10;

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.3535 = 0.6465

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

3 0
3 years ago
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