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pav-90 [236]
4 years ago
13

Many critics have argued that a sales or consumption tax should be eliminated because of its regressive nature. what is the basi

s of this argument?
Business
2 answers:
ladessa [460]4 years ago
6 0

Because percentage of income use for consumption tends to fall/reduced as income of that person rises.

For examples, let's say that Person A earn $10 a year and person B earn $ 100 year. When both person A and person B decided to buy a bread, both would be subjected to a consumption tax of $ 1.

Many experts say this as regressive because the impact of consumption tax actually would be harsher for people in lower income. From the example above the consumption tax took 10% of the person A's income while it only take 1% of person B's income.

ivolga24 [154]4 years ago
5 0
The basis for this argument is that consumption tax takes a larger percentage of income from low income earners than from high income earners. This is because consumption tax is uniformly applied to all people irrespective of their situation.<span />
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Business portfolio analysis is defined as the process in which management __________.
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3 years ago
Daget Corporation uses direct labor-hours in its predetermined overhead rate. At the beginning of the year, the total estimated
Kruka [31]

Answer:

$15.48

Explanation:

The computation of the predetermined overhead rate is shown below:

Predetermined overhead rate = (Manufacturing overhead) ÷ (Direct labor-hours)

where,

Manufacturing overhead equals to

=  Actual manufacturing overhead + over applied manufacturing overhead

= $362,380 + $9,140

= $371,520

So, the rate is

= $371,520 ÷ 24,000 hours

= $15.48

3 0
3 years ago
ANSWER ASAP
natka813 [3]

Answer: The correct answer is Account A.

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8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You expect to receive a payment of £1,000,000 in British pounds after six months. The pound is currently worth $1.60 (i.e., £1 $
zhannawk [14.2K]

Answer:

a) Expected payment in dollars is $1,600,000

b) $1,560,000

c) Loss is -$250,000

d) Loss would be $40,000

e) If after hedging the price falls to $1.35, the contract amount would still not change.

f) If after hedging the price rises to $1.80, the contract amount would still not change.

g) Loss would be $200,000

Explanation:

You expect to receive a payment of £1,000,000 in British pounds after six months.

The pound is currently worth $1.60, i.e., £1 = $1.60

Six-month future price is $1.56, i.e., £1 = $1.56

a) At £1 = $1.60 current price, expected payment of £1,000,000 in dollars

= £1,000,000 × $1.60 = $1,600,000

b) At £1 = $1.56 future price, expected payment of £1,000,000 in dollars

= £1,000,000 × $1.56 = $1,560,000

c) If after six months, £1 = $1.35, expected payment of £1,000,000 in dollars

= £1,000,000 × $1.35 = $1,350,000

Therefore, loss =  $1,350,000 - $1,600,000  = -$250,000

d) Present price at $1.60 delivery = $1,600,000

Future price at $1.56 delivery = $1,560,000

Loss = $1,600,000 - $1,560,000 = $40,000

g) Present price at $1.60 delivery = $1,600,000

Future price at $1.80 = $1,800,000

Loss = $1,800,000 - $1,600,000 = $200,000

8 0
4 years ago
During 2017, Sheridan Company expected Job No. 26 to cost $300000 of overhead, $500000 of materials, and $200000 in labor. Sheri
vovangra [49]

Answer:

The $885,000 was transferred to Finished Goods

Explanation:

The computation of the transferred amount to finished good is shown below:

= Material used + labor cost + overhead cost

where,

Overhead cost = (Expected overhead ÷ estimated labor) × actual labor cost

= ($300,000 ÷ $200,000) × $150,000

= 1.5 × $150,000

= $225,000

The other items values would remain the same

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $510,000 + $150,000 + $225,000

= $885,000

3 0
4 years ago
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