1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
soldier1979 [14.2K]
3 years ago
12

What was one reason the United States government gave subsidies and land grants to railroad companies in the 1800s?

Social Studies
2 answers:
Alex_Xolod [135]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The United States Congress wanted to create a "transcontinental railroad".

Explanation:

The Pacific Railroad Acts of 1862 was the way through which the United States Congress wanted to promote all aspects referring to the establishment of a "transcontinental railroad" throughout the United States. United States Congress wanted to accomplish this through the utilization of government bonds as well as the grants of the land regarding the different railroad companies.

In 1853, Congress authorized the War Department to conduct some surveys related to the five possible transcontinental routes. These routes would be from the north of Mississippi to the south. However, any route was established.  

julsineya [31]3 years ago
5 0

To create railroad networks that spanned the entire country

You might be interested in
Read the excerpt from "How I Learned English.”
lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer:

he enjoys a funny moment with the other boys.

8 0
3 years ago
In a classic study of how inferences are processed in text comprehension, kintsch (1974) presented one group of participants wit
olga_2 [115]
<span>verification times were equally fast for implied and explicit facts, but only after a delay.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
How did the Underground Railroad work?
kumpel [21]
The correct answer is D. All of the above.
There were safe places, called stations, along set paths where slaves could seek shelter.
5 0
3 years ago
What is crop???.......​
FrozenT [24]

Answer:

well there is 2 or more meaning of it

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
When a state exercises jurisdiction over property within that state, this type of jurisdiction is called in personam?
Sergio039 [100]
That statement is false.
Personam refers to a situation when the States exercise jurisdiction over DEFENDANT within that state.
If for example, the defendant conducted their accused crime on the State of California, the state of Arizona couldn't possess the right to try the case in Arizona.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • so like i need help from the top paragraph.. will someone explain what i should do can you give me an example ?
    7·2 answers
  • The term socialism refers to which of the following? a. An economic system characterized by government ownership of resources an
    5·1 answer
  • The state of Georgia provides a variety of services for its citizens. What is the largest percentage of the state's budget spent
    14·2 answers
  • Which two present day US cities were instrumental in gaining US independence from Great Britain and in establishing the US syste
    7·2 answers
  • Which state supreme court ruled that juveniles have the constitutional right to a trial by jury?
    9·1 answer
  • An elderly woman who revels in stories of both business failures and successes as she writes a candid autobiography is in which
    14·1 answer
  • Perry, an attorney, is attending a hearing at the federal courthouse. He opens the courthouse door for a young woman with a guid
    5·1 answer
  • Explain in your own words what "native population" means. Give an example in your explanation.
    12·1 answer
  • What other Latin American country would goods transported overland most likely go through to reach California from South America
    8·1 answer
  • Question to answer:
    11·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!