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MrRissso [65]
3 years ago
6

Electrix Inc. is an electrical appliances manufacturing company. It distributes shares of stock to its employees by placing the

stock in a trust managed on the employees' behalf. Which of the following has been implemented by Electrix in this scenario?
Business
1 answer:
Leni [432]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

<em>Employee stock ownership  plan</em>

Explanation:

An employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) is <em>a retirement plan wherein the employer contributes its shares (or funds to purchase its stock) to the fund for the advantage of the employees of the company.</em>

The company maintains an account for every employee who participates in the program.

Over time stock shares accumulate before an employee is eligible to them.

With an ESOP, while still working with the company, you never purchase or keep the stock directly.

If an employee is fired, decides to retire, is disabled, or dies, the company must transfer the stock shares in the account of the employee.

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Available"" (as in ""measurable and available"") means 1. Available to finance expenditures of the current period 2. Subject to
MAVERICK [17]

Answer:

1. Available to finance expenditure of the current period

Explanation:

Government Accounting is concerned with propriety i.e judicious use of resources and allocation of government funds so as to ensure efficient performance of government entities.

Efficiency refers to input/output ratio whereas effectiveness refers to achievement of government programs.

Government requires funds for allocation to various projects which require sanctioning by an authority.

In the same context, the concept of "available" refers to the availability of funds to meet the current period expenditure and liabilities.

4 0
3 years ago
In the economy of Panicia, the monetary base is $1,000. People hold a third of their money in the form of currency (and thus two
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

(a) rr: 1/3, cr: 0.5, m:1.8 M: 1800

(b) 1500

(c) 200

8 0
3 years ago
Titus Company produced 5,900 units of a product that required 3.546 standard hours per unit. The standard fixed overhead cost pe
natta225 [31]

Answer:

$417 A.

It is an adverse variance.

Explanation:

Fixed factory overhead volume variance is the difference between budgeted output at 100% normal capacity and actual production volume multiplied by standard fixed overhead cost per unit.

Formula

Fixed factory overhead volume variance = (budgeted standard hours for 100% normal capacity - Actual standard output hours) × standard fixed overhead cost per unit.

Calculation

Since 5900 units of a product was produced in 3.546 standard hours per unit, total actual standard hour is therefore;

= 5900×3.546

=20,921 hours

Overhead cost per unit = $1.10 per hour

Hours at 100% normal capacity = 21,300 hours.

Recall the formula for fixed factory overhead volume variance is =(budgeted standard hours for 100% normal output- actual standard output hours)× standard fixed overhead per unit.

Therefore;

Fixed factory overhead volume variance =(21,300 hours - 20,921 hours)× $1.10

=379 hours × $1.10

=$417 A

It is therefore an adverse variance.

4 0
3 years ago
Sheridan Company acquired a plant asset at the beginning of Year 1. The asset has an estimated service life of 5 years. An emplo
Artist 52 [7]

Answer:

A. The cost of asset being depreciated is $57,000

B.The amount of salvage value is $5,700

Explanation:

Among the above-mentioned methods of depreciation, the only method that never consider salvage value on its computation of depreciation expense is the double declining method. So let’s use this method to work back the exact amount depreciable amount of an asset.

Formula : 100% / life of an asset x 2

100% / 5 x 2 = 40%

Y1 = $22,800/40 = 57,000

so to check if the amount is correct, let’s do the computation of 5-year depreciation.

Y1 57,000 x 40% = 22,800 (same as the given data)

Y2 (57,000 - 22,800) x 40% =13,680

Y3 (57,000 - 22,800 - 13,680) x 40% = 8,208

Y4 (57,000-22,800 - 13,680 - 8,208) x 40% = 4,925

Y5 (57,000 -22,800 - 13,680 - 8,208 - 4,925) x 40% = 1,687* (adjusted based on the depreciable amount)

B. To compute the salvage value, we simply deduct the total depreciation from the cost of an asset.

57,000 - 51,300 = 5,700

To check:

(57,000 - 5,700) / 5 years = 10,260

8 0
3 years ago
A firm has sales of $1.8 million, and 20 percent of the sales are for cash. The year-end accounts receivable balance is $225,000
Juliette [100K]

Answer:

The average collection period is 56.25 days

Explanation:

The average collection period is the number of days' sales in receivables and calculated by using following formula:

The number of days' sales in receivables = 360/Accounts receivable turnover ratio

Accounts Receivable Turnover = Net Credit Sales/Accounts Receivable

Net Credit sales = Total Sales - the sales are for cash = $1,800,000 - 20% x $1,800,000 = $1,440,000

Accounts Receivable Turnover = $1,440,000/$225,000 = 6.4 times

The number of days' sales in receivables = 360/6.4 = 56.25 days

7 0
3 years ago
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