The English replaced France and Spain as the single-most influential political and economic power in North America during the first three quarters of the eighteenth century. During that time, the North American part of Spanish Empire covered an immense but sparsely populated and economically inactive territory. The colonies consisted of several small and isolated urban clusters, mostly under the control of Indian. The colonies' dependence on trade and extraction of Indian labor, and failure to attract settlers made the colony impoverish. Florida remained a stagnant military outpost, and others were dotted by a small number of mission outposts that attempted to convert Indian. French colonies, in contrast, was able to rival the British ones. It possessed a expanding colony in Canada and continued into Mississippi River Valley. Prosperous farming communities with a vibrant and established social life developed in colonies. Though populated, the colonies were still dwarfed by the British ones, due to the dominant prejudice against emigration. Yet the French still posed a threat to British in military and trading power. However, after the power struggle in the Seven Years' War, the British obtained Canada from French and Florida from Spain, and became the dominant power in North America.
This statement best explains how economic capitalism affected China during the mid-19th century : China's territory was divided into zones that were economically dominated by specific European powers
To gain the interest for Those companies, the Chinese government implemented various policy that bring a lot of benefits for companies who're willing to operate in the territory
I would argue that the primary difference was the introduction of nuclear weapons after WWII--meaning that the spread of communism could actually take over the world as opposed to just causing unrest in the US.
B is your answer. The people should vote about state laws over the government laws.