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3 years ago

If it had, instead, lost $150 per day, how much money would it have lost for the week?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Ksivusya [100]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

$1050

Step-by-step explanation:

You lose 150 a day.

There are 7 days in a week.

7*150=1050

You would lose $1050 for the week.

Solnce55 [7]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

$1,050 because 150x7=1,050

Step-by-step explanation:

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If you get the right answer I will mark u brainlest

poizon [28]

Answer:

Line B? Professional guesser please dont get me fired.

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3 years ago

A bottle contains 255 coins. 1/3 of the coins are ?1.00. 110 of the coins are 50p coins. the rest are 20p coins. work out the to

aliina [53]

Answer:

£152.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have been given that a bottle contains 255 coins. 1/3 of the coins are £1.00.

Let us find 1/3 of 255 to find the number of £1 coins.

$\£1\text{ coins}=\frac{1}{3}\times 255$

$\£1\text{ coins}=85$

This means we have £85.

We are also told that 110 of the coins are 50 p coins.

$\text{Value of 50 p coins}=\£0.50\times 110$

$\text{Value of 50 p coins}=\£55$

Let us figure out number of 20 p coins by subtracting the number of £1 coins and 50 p coins from 255.

$\text{Number of 20 p coins}=255-(85+110)$

$\text{Number of 20 p coins}=255-(195)$

$\text{Number of 20 p coins}=60$

$\text{Value of 20 p coins}=\£0.20\times 60$

$\text{Value of 20 p coins}=\£12$

Now let us find total value of the coins contained in the bottle by adding the values of £1 coins, 50 p coins and 20 p coins.

$\text{The total value of the coins}=\£85+\£55+\£12$

$\text{The total value of the coins}=\£152$

Therefore, the total value of the coins contained in the bottle is £152.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Jordan jarred 18 liters of jam after 6 days. How many days does Jordan need to spend making jam if he wants to jar 27 liters of

tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

69420

Step-by-step explanation:

69 420 equils 69 420

8 0

3 years ago

Find the area of a rectangle 4 3/4 feet long and 2 feet long

omeli [17]

Answer:

9.5 ft^2

Step-by-step explanation:

It’s just 4.75 * 2

7 0

3 years ago

The interarrival time of nuclear particles in a Monte Carlo simulation of a reaction is designed to have a uniform distribution

jekas [21]

Answer:

Incomplete question, but you can use the formulas given to solve it.

Step-by-step explanation:

Uniform probability distribution:

An uniform distribution has two bounds, a and b.

The probability of finding a value of at lower than x is:

$P(X < x) = \frac{x - a}{b - a}$

The probability of finding a value between c and d is:

$P(c \leq X \leq d) = \frac{d - c}{b - a}$

The probability of finding a value above x is:

$P(X > x) = \frac{b - x}{b - a}$

Uniform distribution over an interval from 0 to 0.5 milliseconds

This means that $a = 0, b = 0.5$

Determine the probability that the interarrival time between two particles will be:

Considering $a = 0, b = 0.5$ , and the question asked, you choose one of the three formulas above.

7 0

3 years ago