Answer:
6
Step-by-step explanation:
You must find the least common multiple of their schedules.
The numbers 3 and 2 are their own prime factors, so the least common multiple of 3 and 2 is 6.
Six weekends must pass until they can both have someone over on the same night.
The number line below shows that the first time their sleepovers coincide is Week 6.
Answer:
g = 3
Step-by-step explanation:
12−1−7−g=1
Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.
12−1−7−g=1
12+−1+−7+−g=1
(−g)+(12+−1+−7)=1(Combine Like Terms)
−g+4=1
−g+4=1
Step 2: Subtract 4 from both sides.
−g+4−4=1−4
−g=−3
Step 3: Divide both sides by -1.
−g
/−1
=
−3
/−1
g=3
Old price: p1 = $ 3.90;
New price: p2 = $ 3.40.
The percentual decrease is given by
d(%) = [ (p2 - p1) / p1 ] * 100 %
d(%) = [ (3.40 - 3.90) / 3.90 ] * 100 %
d(%) = [ - 0.50 / 3.90 ] * 100 %
d(%) = - 0.128 * 100 %
d(%) = - 12.8 % (approximately)
So the price fell 12.8 % approximately.
I hope this helps. =)
The computer regression output includes the R-squared values, and adjusted R-squared values as well as other important values
a) The equation of the least-squares regression line is 
b) The correlation coefficient for the sample is approximately 0.351
c) The slope gives the increase in the attendance per increase in wins
Reasons:
a) From the computer regression output, we have;
The y-intercept and the slope are given in the <em>Coef</em> column
The y-intercept = 10835
The slope = 235
The equation of the least-squares regression line is therefore

b) The square of the correlation coefficient, is given in the table as R-sq = 12.29% = 0.1229
Therefore, the correlation coefficient, r = √(0.1229) ≈ 0.351
The correlation coefficient for the sample, r ≈ <u>0.351</u>
c) The slope of the least squares regression line indicates that as the number of attending increases by 235 for each increase in wins
Learn more here:
brainly.com/question/2456202
Answer:
x = ± 
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
x² - 7 = 0 ( add 7 to both sides )
x² = 7 ( take the square root of both sides )
x = ± 